How many delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

a)        One

b)       Two

c)        Three

d)       Four

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled key events and legal frameworks related to delimitation in India.
• Logical Deductions: Assessed the timeline and number of delimitation exercises undertaken in India since independence.
• Elimination of Extremes: Ruled out options inconsistent with the known frequency of delimitation commissions.

Analysis of Options

Delimitation in India

• Delimitation commissions are constituted under the Delimitation Act to redraw the boundaries of constituencies based on the most recent census.
• They ensure equitable representation by accounting for changes in population.

Details of Delimitation Commissions

1.        First Delimitation Commission (1952): Formed under the Delimitation Act, 1952, based on the 1951 Census.

2.        Second Delimitation Commission (1963): Constituted following the 1961 Census.

3.        Third Delimitation Commission (1973): Set up after the 1971 Census.

4.        Fourth Delimitation Commission (2002): Established following the 2001 Census.

No Further Commissions

• As of December 2023, no fifth commission has been constituted, as the next delimitation process is anticipated after the 2021 Census, which has been delayed due to the pandemic.

Correct Answer: (d) Four

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Applied knowledge of the historical timeline of delimitation exercises in India.

·          Logical Deductions: Recognized that the timeline for delimitation is tied to census years, with the last completed census being in 2011.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Disregarded options such as "one" or "two" commissions, as they underrepresent the historical count.

·          Look for Contradictions: Confirmed that no fifth commission has been constituted due to the delay in the 2021 Census.

The Constitution (71^st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eights Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?

1.        Konkani

2.        Manipuri

3.        Nepali

4.        Maithili

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a)       1, 2 and 3

b)       1, 2 and 4

c)        1, 3 and 4

d)       2, 3 and 4

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled historical details about the inclusion of languages in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
• Elimination of Extremes: Ruled out languages added by amendments other than the 71st Amendment.
• Logical Deductions: Matched the amendment year with relevant socio-political developments regarding language recognition in the Constitution.

Analysis of Options

The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992

• This amendment expanded the Eighth Schedule by including three languages: Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali.
• The inclusion was aimed at recognizing linguistic diversity and granting official status to these languages.

Maithili

• Maithili was added later through the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003, along with Santali, Bodo, and Dogri.
• Therefore, Maithili is not included in the 71st Amendment.

Correct Languages Under 71st Amendment

• Konkani
• Manipuri
• Nepali

Correct Answer (a) 1, 2 and 3

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the languages added by the 71st Amendment and distinguished them from those included later (e.g., Maithili in 2003).

·          Logical Deductions: Focused on the historical timeline and socio-political context to confirm the amendment’s content.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Excluded Maithili as it was not part of the 71st Amendment Act.

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the political affiliations and leadership of key historical figures in Indian politics.
• Logical Deductions: Matched the leaders to their respective parties based on their ideological leanings and historical significance.
• Elimination of Extremes: Identified mismatches based on historical inaccuracies.
• Look for Contradictions: Verified pairs against known historical facts.

Analysis of Pairs

Pair 1: Bharatiya Jana Sangh – Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee was the founder and leader of the Bharatiya Jana Sangh in 1951, a precursor to the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).
• This pair is correctly matched.

Pair 2: Socialist Party – C. Rajagopalachari

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• C. Rajagopalachari was not associated with the Socialist Party; he founded the Swatantra Party in 1959, advocating for free-market policies and opposing socialism.
• The Socialist Party was associated with leaders like Acharya Narendra Dev, Jayaprakash Narayan, and Ram Manohar Lohia.
• This pair is incorrectly matched.

Pair 3: Congress for Democracy – Jagjivan Ram

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Jagjivan Ram led the Congress for Democracy, a splinter group of the Congress Party, formed in 1977 in opposition to Indira Gandhi’s regime during the Emergency.
• This pair is correctly matched.

Pair 4: Swatantra Party – Acharya Narendra Dev

• Technique Used: Look for Contradictions.
• Acharya Narendra Dev was a prominent socialist leader and associated with the Socialist Party, not the Swatantra Party.
• The Swatantra Party was founded by C. Rajagopalachari, advocating for liberal economic policies.
• This pair is incorrectly matched.

Correct Answer (b) Only two

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified the leadership of Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee (Bharatiya Jana Sangh) and Jagjivan Ram (Congress for Democracy).

·          Logical Deductions: Recognized the ideological mismatch of C. Rajagopalachari with the Socialist Party and Acharya Narendra Dev with the Swatantra Party.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Discarded pairs with clear historical inaccuracies.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified the roles of key leaders against their ideological alignments and party affiliations.

Which of the following statements are correct about the constitution of India?

1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.

2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.

3. Provisions related to the amendment of the constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the division of constitutional provisions across various parts of the Indian Constitution.
• Logical Deductions: Matched specific topics like municipalities, emergency provisions, and constitutional amendments to their respective parts in the Constitution.
• Elimination of Extremes: Verified if each statement was accurate and ruled out incorrect combinations.
• Look for Contradictions: Checked if statements contradicted known constitutional articles and parts.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Part IX A of the Constitution, added by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, deals with the powers, composition, and functioning of Municipalities.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 2: Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Part XVIII of the Constitution contains provisions related to emergency situations, including national, state, and financial emergencies (Articles 352 to 360).
• This statement is correct.

Statement 3: Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Part XX of the Constitution contains Article 368, which outlines the procedure for amending the Constitution.
• This statement is correct.

Correct Answer (d) 1, 2 and 3

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified Part IX A for municipalities, Part XVIII for emergency provisions, and Part XX for constitutional amendments.

·          Logical Deductions: Cross-referenced parts of the Constitution with specific provisions to confirm their accuracy.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Ruled out options that excluded any correct statement.

·          Look for Contradictions: Checked if the placement of constitutional provisions was consistent with known parts and articles.

Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.

(b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.

(c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.

(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the classification of subjects in the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists in the Constitution of India.
• Elimination of Extremes: Removed options that contradict the constitutional framework of federal governance.
• Logical Deductions: Matched the topics in the question with the appropriate legislative lists.
• Look for Contradictions: Verified if any statement misrepresented the allocation of subjects in the Seventh Schedule.

Analysis of Options

Option (a): Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Inter-State trade and commerce fall under the Union List (Entry 42) and are regulated by the Parliament.
• This statement is incorrect as inter-state trade and commerce are not within the purview of the State List.

Option (b): Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Inter-State migration and emigration fall under the Union List (Entry 81), as the Union has authority over matters that affect multiple states.
• This statement is incorrect.

Option (c): Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Inter-State quarantine is mentioned in the Union List (Entry 29). The Union government has the power to legislate on quarantine measures to prevent the spread of diseases between states.
• This statement is correct.

Option (d): Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List

• Technique Used: Look for Contradictions.
• Corporation tax is a Union subject, as taxation on corporations is under the Union List (Entry 82). States have no authority to legislate on corporation tax.
• This statement is incorrect.

Correct Answer (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified that inter-state matters and taxation on corporations fall under the Union List, not the State List.

·          Logical Deductions: Matched topics like inter-state migration and quarantine to their appropriate entries in the Union List.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Ruled out options that incorrectly placed inter-state or tax-related subjects in the State List.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified the allocation of legislative subjects in the Seventh Schedule to ensure accuracy.

Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

(a) Article 15

(b) Article 16

(c) Article 19

(d) Article 21

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled key Supreme Court judgments and their constitutional basis.
• Logical Deductions: Identified the nature of the Right to Privacy and its connection to fundamental rights.
• Elimination of Extremes: Removed options that do not align with privacy as a fundamental right.

Analysis of Options

Option (a): Article 15

• Technique Used: Elimination of Extremes.
• Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• It does not deal with the concept of privacy.
• This option is incorrect.

Option (b): Article 16

• Technique Used: Elimination of Extremes.
• Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment and focuses on reservation policies.
• It is unrelated to the Right to Privacy.
• This option is incorrect.

Option (c): Article 19

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Article 19 provides freedoms such as speech, expression, and movement. While privacy can have implications on these freedoms, it is not explicitly placed under Article 19 by the Supreme Court.
• This option is not fully correct.

Option (d): Article 21

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• In the landmark K.S. Puttaswamy vs Union of India (2017) judgment, the Supreme Court held that the Right to Privacy is a fundamental right under Article 21, which guarantees the Right to Life and Personal Liberty.
• This option is correct.

Correct Answer (d) Article 21

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled that the Right to Privacy was explicitly recognized under Article 21 by the Supreme Court in the K.S. Puttaswamy judgment.

·          Logical Deductions: Linked privacy to the broader framework of life and liberty, which Article 21 protects.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Ruled out Articles 15 and 16 as they do not pertain to privacy rights.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified that Article 19, while indirectly connected, does not explicitly place privacy as a fundamental right.

What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?

1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee

2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs

3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the role and responsibilities of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) based on recent policy frameworks.
• Logical Deductions: Analysed whether the duties align with the CDS’s primary role of integration and advisory within the defence structure.
• Elimination of Extremes: Ruled out options suggesting command over Service Chiefs, as it contradicts the established role of the CDS.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The CDS is designated as the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee, facilitating coordination among the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 2: Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs

• Technique Used: Look for Contradictions.
• The CDS does not exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs (Army, Navy, Air Force).
• The Service Chiefs retain operational command of their respective forces, while the CDS focuses on tri-service coordination, resource optimization, and advising the government.
• This statement is incorrect.

Statement 3: Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions, Use of General Knowledge.
• The CDS serves as the Principal Military Advisor to the Defence Minister on tri-service matters, ensuring an integrated approach to defence planning and strategy.
• This statement is correct.

Correct Answer (d) 1 and 3 only

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified the CDS’s role as the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee and an advisor on tri-service matters, not a commander of the Service Chiefs.

·          Logical Deductions: Connected the advisory and integrative nature of the CDS’s responsibilities with the requirements for tri-service coordination.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Ruled out options suggesting direct military command, as this contradicts the purpose of the CDS role.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified that command authority lies with the Service Chiefs, not the CDS.

Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called: 

(a) Operations Sankalp

(b) Operation Maitri

(c) Operation Sadbhavana 

(d) Operation Madad

Techniques Used

• Use of Familiar Terms: Recognized the operations listed and their associations with specific contexts.
• Logical Deductions: Matched the names of operations with their purposes, particularly focusing on humanitarian and upliftment efforts.
• Elimination of Extremes: Removed options that do not align with addressing basic needs of the local population in remote areas.
• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the Army’s history of operations aimed at helping local communities.

Analysis of Options

Option (a): Operations Sankalp

• Technique Used: Use of Familiar Terms.
• Operation Sankalp was launched by the Indian Navy to ensure the safe passage of Indian-flagged merchant vessels in the Strait of Hormuz amid heightened tensions in the region.
• It does not pertain to addressing the basic needs of the local population.
• This option is incorrect.

Option (b): Operation Maitri

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Operation Maitri was India’s humanitarian relief and rescue operation in Nepal after the 2015 earthquake.
• While it was a humanitarian mission, it is not related to long-term upliftment of the local population in remote areas.
• This option is incorrect.

Option (c): Operation Sadbhavana

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions, Use of Familiar Terms.
• Operation Sadbhavana is a long-standing Army initiative aimed at uplifting the local population in remote areas, particularly in regions like Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh, through infrastructure development, healthcare, and education initiatives.
• This operation is directly aligned with the question’s context.
• This option is correct.

Option (d): Operation Madad

• Technique Used: Elimination of Extremes.
• Operation Madad was undertaken by the Indian Navy during flood relief operations in Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
• It pertains to disaster response, not long-term local population upliftment.
• This option is incorrect.

Correct Answer (c) Operation Sadbhavana

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of Familiar Terms: Identified Operation Sadbhavana as related to social upliftment, while other options were linked to disaster relief or maritime safety.

·          Logical Deductions: Matched the Army’s initiative for addressing basic needs in remote areas to Operation Sadbhavana, given its focus on infrastructure, healthcare, and education.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Removed operations not associated with sustained upliftment efforts.

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled Operation Sadbhavana’s key role in fostering goodwill and community development in conflict-affected and remote areas.

The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:

(a) Canada and the United States of America

(b) Chile and Argentina

(c) China and India

(d) Kazakhstan and Russian Federation

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled key facts about international borders and their lengths.
• Logical Deductions: Analysed geographical and political contexts to identify the longest border.
• Elimination of Extremes: Removed options that are known to have shorter borders compared to others.
• Look for Contradictions: Verified the actual lengths of the borders to ensure accuracy.

Analysis of Options

Option (a): Canada and the United States of America

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The border between Canada and the USA is the longest international border in the world, spanning approximately 8,890 km.
• This includes both the land border and the maritime boundary.
• This option is correct.

Option (b): Chile and Argentina

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• The border between Chile and Argentina is long but significantly shorter than the Canada-USA border, at approximately 5,308 km.
• This option is incorrect.

Option (c): China and India

• Technique Used: Elimination of Extremes.
• The India-China border, often referred to as the Line of Actual Control (LAC), is approximately 3,488 km.
• It is not the longest border in the world.
• This option is incorrect.

Option (d): Kazakhstan and Russian Federation

• Technique Used: Look for Contradictions.
• The border between Kazakhstan and Russia is the longest continuous land border in Eurasia, at approximately 7,644 km.
• However, it is shorter than the Canada-USA border.
• This option is incorrect.

Correct Answer (a) Canada and the United States of America

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recognized the Canada-USA border as the longest international border globally.

·          Logical Deductions: Compared the border lengths of the other options, ruling out those shorter than the Canada-USA border.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Removed China-India and Chile-Argentina as their border lengths are much smaller.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified that even though the Kazakhstan-Russia border is long, it is not longer than the Canada-USA border.

Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?

1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.

2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.

3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the structure, functioning, and rules related to the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha.
• Logical Deductions: Analysed each statement's validity based on the Committee's purpose and procedural limitations.
• Elimination of Extremes: Removed statements inconsistent with the rules governing parliamentary committees.
• Look for Contradictions: Checked if any statement conflicted with known facts about the Ethics Committee.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha was initially constituted as an ad-hoc committee in 2000 to examine unethical conduct by members and recommend improvements in ethical standards.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 2: Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions, Look for Contradictions.
• The Ethics Committee allows any individual or organization, not just Lok Sabha members, to make a complaint regarding unethical conduct by a member.
• Restricting complaints to only Lok Sabha members would limit the scope of accountability, which is contrary to the Committee’s purpose.
• This statement is incorrect.

Statement 3: This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge, Logical Deductions.
• Like other parliamentary committees, the Ethics Committee cannot deal with matters that are sub-judice (pending adjudication in a court of law).
• This is to avoid interference in judicial proceedings.
• This statement is correct.

Correct Answer (c) 1 and 3 only

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified that the Ethics Committee started as an ad-hoc body and that sub-judice matters are generally excluded from parliamentary committees' purview.

·          Logical Deductions: Understood that allowing complaints from non-members aligns with democratic principles and the purpose of the Committee.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Removed Statement 2 for its restrictive claim, as it contradicts the broader scope of accountability.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified that restricting complaints to members only would contradict the Committee’s mandate to uphold ethical standards.

Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?

(a) C. Rajagopalachari

(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(c) T.T. Krishnamachari

(d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled key events and individuals involved in the formation of the Constituent Assembly.
• Logical Deductions: Connected the timeline of the Constituent Assembly's proceedings with the roles of prominent leaders.
• Elimination of Extremes: Ruled out options that do not align with the role of the Provisional President.

Analysis of Options

Option (a): C. Rajagopalachari

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• C. Rajagopalachari was an eminent leader in the freedom struggle and later became the first Indian Governor-General of India. However, he was not associated with the role of Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly.
• This option is incorrect.

Option (b): Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution, not the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly.
• This option is incorrect.

Option (c): T.T. Krishnamachari

• Technique Used: Elimination of Extremes.
• T.T. Krishnamachari was a prominent member of the Constituent Assembly but did not hold the position of Provisional President.
• This option is incorrect.

Option (d): Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge, Logical Deductions.
• Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was appointed as the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly during its first meeting on December 9, 1946, before Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent President.
• This option is correct.

Correct Answer (d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled that Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, being the oldest member, was chosen as the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly.

·          Logical Deductions: Distinguished between the roles of the Provisional President and other key members like Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and C. Rajagopalachari.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Removed options with roles unrelated to the Provisional Presidency, ensuring clarity and focus.

With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:

1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.

2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the key provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935.
• Logical Deductions: Analyzed the structure of federal governance and the distribution of powers under the Act.
• Elimination of Extremes: Removed statements that conflict with the overarching control of the British Crown during this period.
• Look for Contradictions: Checked the accuracy of each statement against historical facts.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The Government of India Act, 1935, proposed an All India Federation that would include British Indian Provinces and Princely States. However, the federation was never realized, as the Princely States did not join.
• The Act did lay the groundwork for such a federation.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 2: Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions, Look for Contradictions.
• Defence and Foreign Affairs were reserved subjects under the control of the Governor-General, not the federal legislature. This ensured British control over critical areas.
• This statement is incorrect.

Correct Answer (a) 1 only

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the Act’s provisions regarding the proposed federation and the reserved subjects of Defence and Foreign Affairs.

·          Logical Deductions: Recognized that Defence and Foreign Affairs were crucial for maintaining British dominance and were unlikely to be under the control of the federal legislature.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Removed the second statement, as it misrepresented the control structure.

·          Look for Contradictions: Confirmed that the second statement contradicts the Act’s clear provisions on reserved subjects.

Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa?

(a) Kavyalankara

(b) Natyashastra

(c) Madhyama vyayoga

(d) Mahabhashya

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled key works of ancient Indian literature and their authors.
• Logical Deductions: Matched the style and theme of the works to their attributed creators.
• Elimination of Extremes: Removed options that clearly belong to other authors or disciplines.
• Look for Contradictions: Checked for any misattributions based on historical evidence.

Analysis of Options

Option (a): Kavyalankara

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Kavyalankara is attributed to Bhamaha, an ancient scholar of poetics and rhetoric, not Bhasa.
• This option is incorrect.

Option (b): Natyashastra

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Natyashastra is a seminal work on drama and performance attributed to Bharata Muni, not Bhasa.
• This option is incorrect.

Option (c): Madhyama Vyayoga

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge, Logical Deductions.
• Madhyama Vyayoga is a Sanskrit play attributed to Bhasa, one of the earliest and most renowned playwrights of ancient India. It is known for its simplicity and dramatic elements.
• This option is correct.

Option (d): Mahabhashya

• Technique Used: Elimination of Extremes.
• Mahabhashya is a commentary on Panini's grammar, attributed to Patanjali, not Bhasa.
• This option is incorrect.

Correct Answer (c) Madhyama Vyayoga

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified Madhyama Vyayoga as one of the works of Bhasa, along with others like Swapnavasavadatta and Urubhanga.

·          Logical Deductions: Matched the thematic focus of Bhasa's plays with the style of Madhyama Vyayoga.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Removed options clearly linked to other authors or disciplines, such as poetics (Kavyalankara) and grammar (Mahabhashya).

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified that Natyashastra is not Bhasa’s work but belongs to Bharata Muni.

Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on:

(a) Prajnaparamita Sutra

(b) Visuddhimagga

(c) Sarvastivada Vinaya

(d) Lalitavistara

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled contributions of Indian Buddhist scholars to Buddhist literature and their connections with Chinese Buddhism.
• Logical Deductions: Analyzed the context and timeline of the Buddhist texts mentioned.
• Elimination of Extremes: Removed options unlikely to match Sanghabhuti’s known scholarly work.
• Look for Contradictions: Verified historical evidence regarding the texts and their authors.

Analysis of Options

Option (a): Prajnaparamita Sutra

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• The Prajnaparamita Sutra is a foundational Mahayana Buddhist text. While many Indian scholars contributed to its commentary, there is no historical record associating Sanghabhuti directly with this text.
• This option is incorrect.

Option (b): Visuddhimagga

• Technique Used: Elimination of Extremes.
• The Visuddhimagga is a Theravada Buddhist manual written by Buddhaghosa, a Sri Lankan monk. Sanghabhuti, being from a different tradition, is not associated with this text.
• This option is incorrect.

Option (c): Sarvastivada Vinaya

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Sanghabhuti was a scholar associated with the Sarvastivada school of Buddhism, which was prominent in early Buddhist traditions. He is known to have authored a commentary on the Sarvastivada Vinaya, a text concerning monastic rules.
• This option is correct.

Option (d): Lalitavistara

• Technique Used: Look for Contradictions.
• The Lalitavistara is a Mahayana text that narrates the life of the Buddha. While significant, it is not linked to Sanghabhuti, who focused on the Vinaya traditions of the Sarvastivada school.
• This option is incorrect.

Correct Answer (c) Sarvastivada Vinaya

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled Sanghabhuti’s connection to the Sarvastivada school and his expertise in monastic discipline.

·          Logical Deductions: Analyzed that a monk like Sanghabhuti, traveling to China, would likely work on texts emphasizing monastic discipline like the Sarvastivada Vinaya.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Removed texts unrelated to his school or period, such as Visuddhimagga and Lalitavistara.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified that his work aligns with the Sarvastivada tradition rather than Mahayana or Theravada texts.

Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO:

1. Shantiniketan

2. Rani-ki-Vav

3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas

4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya

How many of the above properties were included in 2023?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the latest updates on UNESCO World Heritage properties in India.
• Logical Deductions: Analyzed the timeline of inclusion for each property to determine which were added in 2023.
• Elimination of Extremes: Removed properties known to have been included in earlier years.
• Look for Contradictions: Verified the status of each property in the UNESCO World Heritage List.

Analysis of Properties

1. Shantiniketan

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Shantiniketan, the cultural and educational center established by Rabindranath Tagore, was included in the UNESCO World Heritage List in 2023.
• This property is one of the inclusions for 2023.

2. Rani-ki-Vav

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Rani-ki-Vav, the Queen’s Stepwell in Gujarat, was added to the UNESCO World Heritage List in 2014, not 2023.
• This property was not included in 2023.

3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas, comprising temples at Belur, Halebidu, and Somnathapura in Karnataka, were included in the UNESCO World Heritage List in 2023.
• This property is one of the inclusions for 2023.

4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya

• Technique Used: Elimination of Extremes.
• The Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya, Bihar, was inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List in 2002, not 2023.
• This property was not included in 2023.

Correct Answer (b) Only two

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified Shantiniketan and Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas as 2023 inclusions based on recent updaes.

·          Logical Deductions: Recognized that Rani-ki-Vav and Mahabodhi Temple were added in earlier years, ruling them out.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Removed options suggesting that more than two properties were included in 2023.

·          Look for Contradictions: Cross-verified the timeline for each property to ensure accuracy.

As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:

1. Addition

2. Variation

3. Repeal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1 2 and 3

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the scope and powers of Parliament under Article 368.
• Logical Deductions: Analysed the constitutional language to determine the breadth of amendment powers.
• Elimination of Extremes: Removed options that incorrectly limit the powers of Parliament under Article 368.
• Look for Contradictions: Verified that all options align with the scope of Article 368.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: Addition

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Article 368 allows Parliament to amend the Constitution by making additions. For example, the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) was added to the Constitution via amendment.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 2: Variation

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Parliament can amend provisions by varying their content. For example, amendments can redefine existing provisions, such as altering reservation criteria or adjusting federal powers.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 3: Repeal

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Article 368 empowers Parliament to repeal provisions of the Constitution. For instance, the Right to Property (Article 31) was repealed as a fundamental right through the 44th Amendment.
• This statement is correct.

Correct Answer (d) 1, 2 and 3

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified that Article 368 explicitly permits Parliament to amend the Constitution by addition, variation, and repeal.

·          Logical Deductions: Recognized that these powers enable comprehensive changes to adapt the Constitution to changing needs.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Rejected options that limited the amendment powers, as Article 368 provides broad authority.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified consistency with historical amendments involving addition, variation, and repeal.

Consider the following countries:

1. Italy

2. Japan

3. Nigeria

4. South Korea

5. south Africa

Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 5

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 3 and 5 only

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled demographic trends and global discussions about ageing populations and low birth rates.
• Logical Deductions: Analysed the economic and social conditions in each country to determine their relevance to the issue.
• Elimination of Extremes: Removed countries known for opposite trends, such as high birth rates or young populations.
• Look for Contradictions: Verified consistency with recent media reports and demographic data.

Analysis of Countries

1. Italy

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Italy is frequently mentioned for its low birth rate and ageing population, which strain its welfare and healthcare systems.
• This country is correctly associated with the issue.

2. Japan

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Japan faces a severe demographic crisis, with one of the world’s lowest birth rates, a rapidly ageing population, and a declining workforce.
• This country is correctly associated with the issue.

3. Nigeria

• Technique Used: Elimination of Extremes.
• Nigeria has one of the highest birth rates globally and a young population, making it the opposite of the countries frequently mentioned for low birth rates or ageing populations.
• This country is not associated with the issue.

4. South Korea

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge, Look for Contradictions.
• South Korea has the world’s lowest fertility rate and faces significant challenges related to its ageing population and potential population decline.
• This country is correctly associated with the issue.

5. South Africa

• Technique Used: Elimination of Extremes.
• South Africa has a relatively high birth rate and a young population, with no significant concerns about ageing or declining populations.
• This country is not associated with the issue.

Correct Answer (a) 1, 2 and 4

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified Italy, Japan, and South Korea as countries frequently highlighted for low birth rates and ageing populations.

·          Logical Deductions: Recognized that economic challenges, healthcare strains, and fertility rates make these countries relevant to the issue.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Removed Nigeria and South Africa due to their high birth rates and young demographics.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified that Nigeria and South Africa face opposite challenges compared to low birth rate countries.

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?

1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.

2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.

3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.

4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the constitutional provisions governing Money Bills.
• Logical Deductions: Analysed the roles of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha in relation to Money Bills.
• Elimination of Extremes: Removed statements that conflict with Article 110 and the established parliamentary procedure.
• Look for Contradictions: Verified each statement against the Constitution.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Article 109 outlines the special procedure for Money Bills, focusing on the distinct roles of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 2: A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• According to Article 110, a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
• This statement is correct.

Statement 3: The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill. It may suggest amendments, but the Lok Sabha has the final authority.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 4: Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha

• Technique Used: Look for Contradictions.
• The Lok Sabha is not bound to accept amendments suggested by the Rajya Sabha. It may choose to reject them outright.
• This statement is incorrect.

Correct Answer (c) 1, 2 and 3

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified Articles 109 and 110 as governing Money Bills and their procedural nuances.

·          Logical Deductions: Recognized that the Rajya Sabha has limited powers regarding Money Bills, and the Lok Sabha holds supremacy.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Removed Statement 4 for its incorrect claim that the Lok Sabha must accept amendments from the Rajya Sabha.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified that the Lok Sabha is not obliged to accept suggestions from the Rajya Sabha, as per Article 110.

Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 3 only

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the rank equivalence across the three services of the Indian Defence Forces.
• Logical Deductions: Compared the command responsibilities and seniority levels of ranks in the Army, Air Force, and Navy.
• Elimination of Extremes: Removed options with clearly incorrect rank equivalences.
• Look for Contradictions: Verified each pairing against the known hierarchy.

Analysis of Statements

1. Brigadier – Air Commodore – Commander

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The correct equivalent of a Brigadier in the Air Force is Air Commodore, but in the Navy, it is Commodore, not Commander.
• This statement is incorrect.

2. Major General – Air Vice Marshal – Vice Admiral

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• A Major General is equivalent to an Air Vice Marshal in the Air Force but is not equivalent to a Vice Admiral in the Navy. A Vice Admiral is equivalent to a Lieutenant General in the Army.
• This statement is incorrect.

3. Major – Squadron Leader – Lieutenant Commander

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• A Major in the Army is equivalent to a Squadron Leader in the Air Force and a Lieutenant Commander in the Navy.
• This statement is correct.

4. Lieutenant Colonel – Group Captain – Captain

• Technique Used: Elimination of Extremes.
• A Lieutenant Colonel in the Army is equivalent to a Wing Commander in the Air Force and a Commander in the Navy. A Group Captain is equivalent to a Colonel in the Army.
• This statement is incorrect.

Correct Answer (d) 3 only

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the equivalence hierarchy across the three defence services.

·          Logical Deductions: Matched ranks based on their operational roles, seniority, and command responsibilities.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Removed options suggesting incorrect equivalence, such as Brigadier with Commander or Major General with Vice Admiral.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified inconsistencies in rank equivalences based on official guidelines.

The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?

1. Governor of the Constituent State

2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State

3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India

4. The Home Minister of India 

Select the Correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only 

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the composition and structure of the North Eastern Council (NEC) after its amendment in 2002.
• Logical Deductions: Analysed the roles of members to match them with NEC’s mandate.
• Elimination of Extremes: Removed options that include unlikely members or do not align with the amended Act.
• Look for Contradictions: Cross-verified each member’s inclusion based on their relevance to the NEC’s purpose.

Analysis of Statements

1. Governor of the Constituent State

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The NEC comprises the Governors of all eight North Eastern States (Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura).
• This statement is correct.

2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• The Chief Ministers of the constituent states are ex officio members of the NEC.
• This statement is correct.

3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge, Look for Contradictions.
• The NEC does not include members nominated by the President. Instead, the Act allows the central government to nominate members with special expertise or experience, but not specifically "three members" nominated by the President.
• This statement is incorrect.

4. The Home Minister of India

• Technique Used: Elimination of Extremes.
• The Home Minister is not a member of the NEC. The Union Minister of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) is the chairperson of the NEC, not the Home Minister.
• This statement is incorrect.

Correct Answer (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the NEC Act’s provisions regarding Governors and Chief Ministers being part of the NEC.

·          Logical Deductions: Matched the NEC’s objectives with the roles of its members, excluding irrelevant positions like the Home Minister.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Discarded statements about presidential nominations and the inclusion of the Home Minister.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified inconsistencies in the claim about nominated members and cross-checked the actual role of the DoNER Minister.

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’:

1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18^th Lok Sabha.

2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.

3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the key provisions of the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, which reserves seats for women in legislatures.
• Logical Deductions: Analysed the provisions for applicability, duration, and inclusiveness based on the Act's text.
• Elimination of Extremes: Removed statements inconsistent with legislative provisions.
• Look for Contradictions: Verified each statement for alignment with constitutional and legislative requirements.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam specifies that the reservation for women will be implemented only after the delimitation exercise based on the next Census. Therefore, its applicability is projected to begin from the 18th Lok Sabha.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 2: This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• The Act provides for women's reservation for 15 years, starting from the date it is enacted and brought into force. This ensures a limited yet substantial duration for its implementation.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 3: There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The Act includes provisions for the reservation of women from Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) within their respective reserved quotas. This ensures inclusivity within the women’s reservation framework.
• This statement is correct.

Correct Answer (a) 1, 2 and 3

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the Act's key provisions regarding its implementation timeline, duration, and inclusivity for SC/ST women.

·          Logical Deductions: Recognized that delimitation and census precede the Act's implementation, and the specified duration aligns with constitutional amendments.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Disregarded doubts about SC/ST inclusion, as the Act explicitly mentions their reservation within the women's quota.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified all provisions for consistency with legislative requirements and public discussions about the Act.

Which of the following statements about ‘Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023’ are correct?

1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.

2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune).

3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.

4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled details about Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023, including participating countries and objectives.
• Logical Deductions: Analysed the involvement of different military branches based on the exercise's scope.
• Elimination of Extremes: Removed statements that contradict known facts about the exercise.
• Look for Contradictions: Verified each statement against official information to ensure accuracy.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Exercise Mitra Shakti is a joint military exercise between India and Sri Lanka, not Bangladesh.
• This statement is incorrect.

Statement 2: It commenced in Aundh (Pune).

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The ninth edition of Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023 commenced in Aundh (Pune) on November 16, 2023.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 3: Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• The exercise aimed to jointly rehearse sub-conventional operations, including counter-terrorism operations.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 4: Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The exercise included 15 personnel from the Indian Air Force and five from the Sri Lankan Air Force.
• This statement is correct.

Correct Answer (d) 2, 3 and 4

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified the correct participating countries and location of the exercise.

·          Logical Deductions: Recognized that counter-terrorism operations are a common focus in joint military exercises.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Disregarded the incorrect association with Bangladesh.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified the involvement of the Indian Air Force through official sources.

A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

(a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.

(b) the parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.

(c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case

(d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the definitions and purposes of constitutional writs under Article 32 and Article 226.
• Logical Deductions: Analysed the specific objective of a writ of prohibition in judicial proceedings.
• Elimination of Extremes: Removed options that do not align with the judiciary's role in issuing writs.
• Look for Contradictions: Verified each option against the constitutional framework.

Analysis of Options

Option (a): A government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• A writ of prohibition is issued to judicial or quasi-judicial authorities, not government officers.
• This option is incorrect.

Option (b): The Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition

• Technique Used: Elimination of Extremes.
• Courts do not issue writs to legislative bodies to pass laws. This would conflict with the separation of powers principle.
• This option is incorrect.

Option (c): The lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• A writ of prohibition is issued by a higher court (Supreme Court or High Court) to a lower court or tribunal to prevent it from exceeding its jurisdiction or continuing proceedings in cases beyond its competence.
• This option is correct.

Option (d): The Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• This would involve a writ of Mandamus, not a writ of prohibition, which deals with judicial or quasi-judicial bodies.
• This option is incorrect.

Correct Answer (c) The lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled that a writ of prohibition applies specifically to lower courts or tribunals exceeding their jurisdiction.

·          Logical Deductions: Distinguished the purpose of writs like prohibition and mandamus to eliminate unrelated options.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Removed options suggesting involvement with government officers or legislative bodies, as they are not within the writ's scope.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified that the writ of prohibition is aimed at judicial authorities, ensuring no misuse of power.

Consider the following statements:

1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.

2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled constitutional provisions related to Scheduled Tribes and their recognition.
• Logical Deductions: Analysed the role of the Governor and Parliament in declaring communities as Scheduled Tribes.
• Elimination of Extremes: Removed options that conflict with established constitutional procedures.
• Look for Contradictions: Verified each statement against the constitutional framework.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• According to Article 342 of the Constitution of India, the President of India, in consultation with the Governor, notifies Scheduled Tribes. However, the actual declaration and recognition are not made by the Governor but by the President, and any changes require a law passed by Parliament.
• This statement is incorrect.

Statement 2: A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Scheduled Tribe status is state-specific, meaning a community recognized as a Scheduled Tribe in one state may not have the same status in another state. This depends on socio-economic factors and the community's historical context within a specific region.
• This statement is correct.

Correct Answer (b) 2 only

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled that Scheduled Tribes are recognized at the national level through Presidential notifications, not solely by the Governor.

·          Logical Deductions: Understood that tribal status varies between states due to localized conditions and distinct socio-political contexts.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Discarded Statement 1 for inaccurately attributing the power of recognition to the Governor.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified that Statement 2 aligns with the state-specific nature of Scheduled Tribe recognition under Article 342.

With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:

1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the House of Parliament.

2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the constitutional provisions and established practices related to the Union Budget.
• Logical Deductions: Analysed the process and roles involved in presenting the Union Budget.
• Elimination of Extremes: Removed statements that contradict the Constitution or established parliamentary practices.
• Look for Contradictions: Verified each statement against constitutional articles and rules.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the House of Parliament

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The Union Finance Minister, not on behalf of the Prime Minister, lays the Annual Financial Statement (Union Budget) before both Houses of Parliament as mandated by Article 112 of the Constitution.
• This statement is incorrect as the Prime Minister is not directly involved in presenting the budget.

Statement 2: At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• As per Article 113 of the Constitution, demands for grants can only be made on the recommendation of the President of India. This ensures that public funds are spent only with the approval of the executive branch.
• This statement is correct.

Correct Answer (b) 2 only

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled that the Finance Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement independently, without acting on behalf of the Prime Minister. Recognized the President's constitutional role in financial legislation.

·          Logical Deductions: Understood that parliamentary procedures ensure executive accountability in financial matters.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Discarded the notion of the Prime Minister's involvement in presenting the budget, focusing on the Finance Minister’s responsibilities.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified the correct roles and authorities under Articles 112 and 113 of the Constitution.