One of the following regions has the world’s largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region?

(a) Amazon Basin

(b) Congo Basin

(c) Kikori Basin

(d) Rio de la Plata Basin

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled information about global tropical peatlands and their ecological significance.

2.        Logical Deductions: Assessed which regions are known for substantial tropical peatland coverage and their carbon storage capacity.

3.        Elimination of Extremes: Discarded options that are less associated with peatlands or are not significant carbon storage sites.

Analysis of Options

(a) Amazon Basin

• The Amazon Basin is famous for its vast tropical rainforest, but it is not known as the world's largest tropical peatland. While it contains some peat deposits, its primary ecological importance is as a rainforest and not for significant peatland carbon storage.
• Incorrect.

(b) Congo Basin

• The Congo Basin, located in Central Africa, houses the Cuvette Centrale peatlands, which are the largest tropical peatlands in the world.
• These peatlands store an estimated 30 gigatons of carbon, equivalent to about three years of global fossil fuel emissions.
• Their destruction would have profound effects on global climate stability.
• Correct.

(c) Kikori Basin

• The Kikori Basin in Papua New Guinea has tropical peatlands, but they are not the largest globally and do not match the described carbon storage scale.
• Incorrect.

(d) Rio de la Plata Basin

• The Rio de la Plata Basin in South America is not known for peatlands. Its ecological importance lies in its river systems and biodiversity.
• Incorrect.

Correct Answer: (b) Congo Basin

Explanation of Correct Answer

• The Congo Basin's Cuvette Centrale peatlands are the world's largest tropical peatlands.
• These peatlands hold approximately three years' worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels, making them critical for global climate stability.
• Their destruction would release vast amounts of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere, significantly exacerbating global warming.

Techniques Summary

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified the Congo Basin as a key peatland region based on its ecological significance.

2.        Logical Deductions: Connected the described carbon storage capacity to the Congo Basin's known peatland features.

3.        Elimination of Extremes: Removed regions that are not associated with extensive tropical peatlands.

With reference to perfluoroalkly and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements:

1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials.

2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment.

3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled basic information about PFAS and their environmental and health impacts.

2.        Logical Deductions: Analysed the statements based on known properties of PFAS, such as persistence and bioaccumulation.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified whether the described characteristics align with scientific knowledge.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food, and food packaging materials.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• PFAS, often referred to as "forever chemicals," are widely used in products like non-stick cookware, water-resistant textiles, and food packaging.
• Studies have shown that PFAS leach into drinking water, food, and food packaging materials, making them prevalent in the environment and human exposure pathways.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 2: PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment.

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• PFAS are highly stable due to the strong carbon-fluorine bonds, which make them resistant to degradation by natural processes. This persistence leads to their accumulation in the environment.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 3: Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• PFAS are known to bioaccumulate in the bodies of animals and humans due to their persistence and resistance to metabolic breakdown. Prolonged exposure is linked to serious health issues like cancer, hormonal disruption, and immune system effects.
• This statement is correct.

Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation of Correct Answer

1.        PFAS in drinking water, food, and food packaging (Statement 1): PFAS contamination is widespread, impacting multiple environmental and human pathways.

2.        Resistance to degradation (Statement 2): PFAS are extremely persistent in the environment due to strong chemical bonds.

3.        Bioaccumulation in animal bodies (Statement 3): PFAS accumulate in organisms over time, leading to significant health and ecological risks.

Techniques Summary

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified key properties and impacts of PFAS.

2.        Logical Deductions: Linked persistence and bioaccumulation to their chemical properties.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Ensured consistency with known scientific findings about PFAS.

Consider the following:

1. Carabid beetles

2. Centipedes

3. Flies

4. Termites

5. Wasps

Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms?

(a) Only two 

(b) Only three

(c) Only four

(d) All five

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the concept of parasitoid species and their associations with various organisms.

2.        Logical Deductions: Analyzed whether each group could support parasitoid relationships based on ecological roles.

3.        Process of Elimination by Context: Excluded organisms that are not commonly associated with parasitoid species.

Understanding Parasitoid Species

• Parasitoids are organisms, typically insects, that live as parasites within or on a host organism, ultimately killing the host as part of their life cycle.
• Common examples include species in the wasp and fly groups, which often lay their eggs inside other insects.

Analysis of Each Organism

1. Carabid beetles

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Carabid beetles are predators, but there is no well-documented evidence of parasitoid species among them.
• This group does not include parasitoids.

2. Centipedes

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Centipedes are carnivorous arthropods that prey on insects, but they are not known to host or be parasitoids.
• This group does not include parasitoids.

3. Flies

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Many flies, especially in the family Tachinidae, are parasitoids. They lay their eggs in or on other organisms, which are consumed by the larvae.
• This group includes parasitoids.

4. Termites

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Termites are eusocial insects and are generally not known to host parasitoid species.
• This group does not include parasitoids.

5. Wasps

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Wasps, particularly in families such as Ichneumonidae and Braconidae, are classic examples of parasitoid species. They lay eggs in or on hosts, which their larvae later consume.
• This group includes parasitoids.

Correct Answer: (a) Only two

Explanation of Correct Answer

1.        Flies: Includes parasitoid species (e.g., Tachinid flies).

2.        Wasps: Includes parasitoid species (e.g., Ichneumonid and Braconid wasps).

3.        Carabid beetles, Centipedes, and Termites: Do not include parasitoid species.

Techniques Summary

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified well-known parasitoid families among flies and wasps.

2.        Logical Deductions: Ruled out organisms unlikely to support parasitoid relationships based on ecological roles.

3.        Process of Elimination by Context: Narrowed down options to two groups with clear parasitoid species.

Consider the following plants:

1. Groundnut

2. Horse-gram

3. Soybean

How many of the above belong to the pea family?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) None

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled plant classification and family associations.

2.        Logical Deductions: Evaluated whether the given plants belong to the pea family (Fabaceae/Leguminosae).

3.        Process of Elimination by Context: Verified whether each plant fits into the pea family based on its characteristics.

Analysis of Each Plant

1. Groundnut

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Groundnut (Arachis hypogaea) belongs to the Fabaceae (pea family). It is a legume and exhibits nitrogen-fixing abilities characteristic of this family.
• This plant belongs to the pea family.

2. Horse-gram

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Horse-gram (Macrotyloma uniflorum) is also a legume and belongs to the Fabaceae (pea family). It is commonly grown in arid regions and shares nitrogen-fixing traits.
• This plant belongs to the pea family.

3. Soybean

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Soybean (Glycine max) is a leguminous plant and belongs to the Fabaceae (pea family). It is widely cultivated for its protein-rich seeds and nitrogen-fixing abilities.
• This plant belongs to the pea family.

Correct Answer: (c) Only three

Explanation of Correct Answer

1.        Groundnut, Horse-gram, and Soybean all belong to the Fabaceae (pea family).

2.        These plants share common characteristics of legumes, such as nitrogen fixation and the ability to enrich soil fertility.

Techniques Summary

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified the plants as legumes belonging to the pea family.

2.        Logical Deductions: Confirmed their family association based on nitrogen-fixing traits and classification.

3.        Process of Elimination by Context: Ruled out any other possible classifications outside the pea family.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the “vermin” category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

Statement-II: The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the biological and legal status of the Indian Flying Fox and its feeding habits.

2.        Logical Deductions: Evaluated the plausibility of the statements based on established facts.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified whether the statements align with known data about the Indian Flying Fox.

Analysis of Statements

Statement-I: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the “vermin” category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The Indian Flying Fox (Pteropus medius), a large fruit bat, is not classified as vermin under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. Vermin designation applies to animals like certain species of monkeys, wild boars, and nilgai in specific areas, not to the Indian Flying Fox.
• This statement is incorrect.

Statement-II: The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The Indian Flying Fox is a frugivorous bat, meaning it primarily feeds on fruits, nectar, and flowers. It does not feed on the blood of other animals; this behaviour is characteristic of vampire bats found in the Americas, not fruit bats like the Indian Flying Fox.
• This statement is incorrect.

Correct Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Explanation of Correct Answer

1.        Statement-I: Incorrect, as the Indian Flying Fox is not classified as vermin under Indian wildlife protection laws.

2.        Statement-II: Incorrect, as the Indian Flying Fox feeds on fruits and nectar, not animal blood.

Techniques Summary

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified the dietary habits and legal status of the Indian Flying Fox.

2.        Logical Deductions: Recognized the mismatch between the vermin category and the ecological role of this bat.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified that the feeding habits do not align with Statement-II.

The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as:

(a) the number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year.

(b) the number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population.

(c) the birth rate minus death rate.

(d) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the definition of total fertility rate (TFR) in demography.

2.        Logical Deductions: Evaluated each option to identify the correct description of TFR.

3.        Elimination of Extremes: Removed options that misrepresent TFR or conflate it with other population metrics.

Analysis of Options

(a) The number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year.

• This describes the crude birth rate, not the total fertility rate.
• Incorrect.

(b) The number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population.

• This describes a measure of completed fertility for a couple, but it is not the definition of TFR, which focuses on women individually.
• Incorrect.

(c) The birth rate minus death rate.

• This describes natural population growth rate, not TFR.
• Incorrect.

(d) The average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.

• This is the correct definition of TFR. It represents the average number of children a woman is expected to bear during her reproductive years (typically ages 15–49), assuming current age-specific fertility rates remain constant.
• Correct.

Correct Answer: (d) The average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.

Explanation of Correct Answer

• Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is a key demographic indicator used to estimate the potential population growth of an economy.
• It reflects the average reproductive behaviour of women in a population, assuming constant fertility rates.
• TFR is significant for understanding trends in population stability, growth, or decline.

Techniques Summary

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified TFR as a measure of average births per woman.

2.        Logical Deductions: Differentiated TFR from other metrics like crude birth rate or population growth rate.

3.        Elimination of Extremes: Removed options conflating TFR with unrelated concepts.

Consider the following statements:

1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India.

2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).

3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 3 only

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the roles and regulations governing NBFCs, FIIs, and stock exchanges in India.

2.        Logical Deductions: Assessed whether the statements align with current policies of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and SEBI.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified the validity of each statement based on legal and regulatory frameworks.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) window of the Reserve Bank of India.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• NBFCs are not permitted to access the LAF window, which is exclusively available to banks and primary dealers for short-term liquidity management.
• This statement is incorrect.

Statement 2: In India, Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• FIIs are allowed to invest in G-Secs within specified limits set by the RBI and SEBI. This is a key avenue for attracting foreign investments into India's debt market.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 3: In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• SEBI permits stock exchanges to operate dedicated debt trading platforms to promote transparency and efficiency in debt market transactions. For example, the NSE and BSE offer such platforms.
• This statement is correct.

Correct Answer: (d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation of Correct Answer

1.        Statement 1: NBFCs do not have access to the RBI’s LAF window.

2.        Statement 2: FIIs are allowed to hold G-Secs within specified regulatory limits.

3.        Statement 3: Stock exchanges can provide separate trading platforms for debt instruments, as regulated by SEBI.

Techniques Summary

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified restrictions on NBFCs and the permissions for FIIs and stock exchanges.

2.        Logical Deductions: Confirmed compatibility of statements with regulatory frameworks.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified the accuracy of the statements against established policies.

In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities?

1. Insurance Companies

2. Pension Funds

3. Retail Investors

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the financial instruments and entities allowed to trade in India.

2.        Logical Deductions: Evaluated the access of each category to corporate bonds and government securities.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified whether any restrictions exist for the mentioned entities.

Analysis of Statements

1. Insurance Companies

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Insurance companies, regulated by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI), are permitted to invest in corporate bonds and government securities as part of their statutory obligations and investment strategies.
• This statement is correct.

2. Pension Funds

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Pension funds, regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), invest in corporate bonds and government securities to meet their long-term liability management and ensure returns for subscribers.
• This statement is correct.

3. Retail Investors

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Retail investors in India can trade in government securities through platforms like the Retail Direct Scheme by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). They can also invest in corporate bonds via stock exchanges and mutual funds.
• This statement is correct.

Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation of Correct Answer

1.        Insurance Companies: Actively participate in both corporate bonds and government securities for portfolio diversification and meeting regulatory requirements.

2.        Pension Funds: Invest in bonds and securities to generate steady and safe returns for their subscribers.

3.        Retail Investors: Participate through platforms like the RBI’s Retail Direct Scheme for government securities and stock exchanges for corporate bonds.

Techniques Summary

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified entities involved in bond and securities trading.

2.        Logical Deductions: Analysed how each category aligns with the regulatory framework.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Ensured no restrictions exist for these entities in trading.

Consider the following:

1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)

2. Motor vehicls

3. Currency swap

Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3 only

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled definitions and categories of financial instruments.

2.        Logical Deductions: Evaluated each item to determine if it fits within the scope of financial instruments.

3.        Elimination of Extremes: Discarded options that include items not considered financial instruments.

Analysis of Each Option

1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• ETFs are financial instruments that pool investor money to track the performance of a specific index, commodity, or asset class. They are traded on stock exchanges like regular shares.
• This is a financial instrument.

2. Motor vehicles

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Motor vehicles are physical assets used for transportation. They do not fit the definition of a financial instrument, which represents a monetary contract or a tradeable asset.
• This is not a financial instrument.

3. Currency swap

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• A currency swap is a financial instrument that involves exchanging one currency for another under agreed terms. It is widely used in foreign exchange markets to manage risk and facilitate international trade.
• This is a financial instrument.

Correct Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation of Correct Answer

1.        Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF): Clearly a financial instrument as it is a tradeable security representing a pool of assets.

2.        Motor vehicles: Not a financial instrument as it is a physical asset with no monetary representation in markets.

3.        Currency swap: A financial instrument used in international finance and currency risk management.

Techniques Summary

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recognized ETFs and currency swaps as financial instruments and excluded motor vehicles.

2.        Logical Deductions: Differentiated between physical assets and monetary contracts.

3.        Elimination of Extremes: Ruled out options including motor vehicles.

With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the classification of economic activities into primary, secondary, and tertiary sectors.

2.        Logical Deductions: Analysed each activity to determine its appropriate sector based on its role in the economy.

3.        Process of Elimination: Cross-checked the pairings to identify any misclassifications.

Analysis of Each Pair

1. Storage of agricultural produce – Secondary

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• The storage of agricultural produce is part of the tertiary sector, as it involves services like warehousing and logistics. The secondary sector involves manufacturing and industrial processing, which is not the case here.
• This pair is incorrect.

2. Dairy farm – Primary

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• A dairy farm involves the rearing of animals and the production of milk, which are part of primary sector activities as they directly utilize natural resources.
• This pair is correct.

3. Mineral exploration – Tertiary

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Mineral exploration involves the extraction of minerals from the earth, which is a primary sector activity, not a tertiary one. The tertiary sector includes services like transportation, banking, and communication, which do not apply here.
• This pair is incorrect.

4. Weaving cloth – Secondary

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Weaving cloth involves manufacturing, which is a secondary sector activity as it converts raw materials (e.g., yarn) into finished goods (cloth).
• This pair is correct.

Correct Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation of Correct Answer

1.        Storage of agricultural produce: Incorrect, as it belongs to the tertiary sector.

2.        Dairy farm: Correct, as it belongs to the primary sector.

3.        Mineral exploration: Incorrect, as it belongs to the primary sector.

4.        Weaving cloth: Correct, as it belongs to the secondary sector.

Techniques Summary

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Correctly identified the economic sector for dairy farming and weaving cloth.

2.        Logical Deductions: Differentiated between primary and tertiary activities for mineral exploration and storage.

3.        Process of Elimination: Verified sector misclassifications in the pairs.

Consider the following materials:

1. Agricultural residues

2. Corn grains

3. Wastewater treatment sludge

4. Wood mill waste

Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the feedstocks typically used in producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF).

2.        Logical Deductions: Assessed the feasibility of each material as a feedstock based on its chemical properties and availability.

3.        Elimination of Extremes: Discarded options where materials clearly unsuitable for SAF were included.

Understanding Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF)

• SAF is a cleaner alternative to conventional jet fuel, produced using renewable or waste-derived feedstocks.
• Common feedstocks include biomass, agricultural residues, waste oils, wood waste, and sludge from wastewater treatment.

Analysis of Each Material

1. Agricultural residues

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Agricultural residues like straw, husks, and other crop waste are rich in lignocellulosic biomass, which can be converted into biofuel.
• This is a suitable feedstock for SAF.

2. Corn grains

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Corn grains, rich in starch, are a primary feedstock for ethanol production. Ethanol can serve as a precursor for SAF production.
• This is a suitable feedstock for SAF.

3. Wastewater treatment sludge

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Wastewater treatment sludge contains organic materials that can be processed to extract biogas or bio-oils, which can then be refined into SAF.
• This is a suitable feedstock for SAF.

4. Wood mill waste

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Wood mill waste, consisting of lignocellulosic materials, can be processed to produce biofuels through thermochemical or biochemical methods.
• This is a suitable feedstock for SAF.

Correct Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation of Correct Answer

1.        Agricultural residues: Rich in lignocellulose, suitable for SAF production.

2.        Corn grains: A starch-based feedstock that can be converted to bioethanol and SAF.

3.        Wastewater treatment sludge: Organic-rich sludge is convertible into bio-oils for SAF.

4.        Wood mill waste: Contains lignocellulose and is suitable for biofuel production.

Techniques Summary

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified materials commonly used in biofuel production.

2.        Logical Deductions: Assessed the chemical properties of each feedstock for SAF suitability.

3.        Elimination of Extremes: Ensured all selected options were viable for SAF production.

With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the definitions and distinctions between fixed capital and working capital.

2.        Logical Deductions: Analysed the economic roles of each item in production processes.

3.        Elimination of Extremes: Discarded pairs that did not fit the criteria for fixed or working capital.

Definitions of Fixed Capital and Working Capital

• Fixed Capital: Long-term assets used in the production process but not consumed, such as tools, machinery, and buildings.
• Working Capital: Short-term assets or inputs consumed in production, such as raw materials, fuel, and operational costs.

Analysis of Pairs

1. Farmer’s plough – Working capital

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• A plough is a long-term tool used repeatedly over several production cycles, making it fixed capital, not working capital.
• This pair is incorrect.

2. Computer – Fixed capital

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• A computer is a long-term asset used repeatedly in various tasks or production processes, fitting the definition of fixed capital.
• This pair is correct.

3. Yarn used by the weaver – Fixed capital

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Yarn is a raw material consumed during the production process (weaving), which aligns with working capital, not fixed capital.
• This pair is incorrect.

4. Petrol – Working capital

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Petrol is a consumable input used during production or operations, making it working capital.
• This pair is correct.

Correct Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation of Correct Answer

1.        Farmer’s plough: Incorrectly matched as working capital; it is fixed capital.

2.        Computer: Correctly matched as fixed capital.

3.        Yarn used by the weaver: Incorrectly matched as fixed capital; it is working capital.

4.        Petrol: Correctly matched as working capital.

Techniques Summary

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified long-term tools as fixed capital and consumables as working capital.

2.        Logical Deductions: Differentiated between items consumed in production and those used repeatedly.

3.        Elimination of Extremes: Excluded pairs that misclassified capital types.

Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote “an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items.”?

(a) Big data analytics

(b) Cryptography

(c) Metaverse

(d) Virtual matrix

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled terminology related to emerging technologies and virtual environments.

2.        Process of Elimination by Context or Word Association: Eliminated options that did not align with the given description.

3.        Logical Deductions: Matched the phrase to the most relevant technological concept.

Analysis of Options

(a) Big data analytics

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Big data analytics refers to the process of examining large datasets to uncover patterns, trends, and insights. It does not relate to 3D virtual worlds or property rights.
• Incorrect.

(b) Cryptography

• Technique Used: Process of Elimination.
• Cryptography involves securing communication and data through encryption. While it plays a role in securing virtual environments, it does not denote an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds.
• Incorrect.

(c) Metaverse

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The metaverse refers to a network of interconnected 3D virtual worlds where users can interact, own virtual property, and participate in shared experiences. This aligns perfectly with the description provided.
• Correct.

(d) Virtual matrix

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• The term "virtual matrix" is not a widely recognized phrase in the context of technology and does not describe the concept of 3D virtual worlds with property rights.
• Incorrect.

Correct Answer: (c) Metaverse

Explanation of Correct Answer

• The metaverse is an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds, allowing users to access virtual environments, interact, and own virtual items with property rights.
• It represents a revolutionary digital space for gaming, socializing, and conducting business, accessible by millions simultaneously.

Techniques Summary

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified the metaverse as the term matching the description.

2.        Process of Elimination by Context or Word Association: Excluded terms unrelated to virtual 3D environments.

3.        Logical Deductions: Confirmed that only the metaverse encapsulates the described features.

With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements:

1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.

2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) rules for foreign banks operating as wholly owned subsidiaries (WOS) in India.

2.        Logical Deductions: Analysed the regulatory framework applicable to foreign banks under the Banking Regulation Act and RBI guidelines.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified consistency with known RBI stipulations.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• According to RBI guidelines, a wholly owned subsidiary (WOS) of a foreign bank in India must maintain a minimum paid-up capital of ₹500 crore along with adequate capital to meet prudential norms.
• This statement is incorrect.

Statement 2: For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• RBI mandates that at least 50% of the directors on the board of a WOS must be Indian nationals to ensure local governance and decision-making accountability.
• This statement is correct.

Correct Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation of Correct Answer

1.        Statement 1: Incorrect, as there is a mandatory minimum capital requirement of ₹500 crore for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.

2.        Statement 2: Correct, as per RBI guidelines, at least 50% of board members of wholly owned subsidiaries must be Indian nationals to strengthen local oversight and compliance.

Techniques Summary

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified the capital requirement and board composition rules for foreign banks operating in India.

2.        Logical Deductions: Confirmed the alignment of governance requirements with RBI’s regulatory objectives.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified that the capital requirement applies universally to wholly owned subsidiaries.

With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements:

1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or the employees will not be considered as CSR activities.

2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the CSR rules as defined under the Companies Act, 2013, and subsequent amendments.

2.        Logical Deductions: Analysed the nature of expenditures and legal provisions regarding CSR obligations.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified whether the statements align with the Companies Act and CSR regulations.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or the employees will not be considered as CSR activities.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• CSR rules under the Companies Act, 2013, specifically state that activities that benefit only the company’s employees or activities undertaken in the normal course of business do not qualify as CSR activities.
• For example, building infrastructure for employees or marketing campaigns cannot be considered CSR.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 2: CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• CSR rules require companies meeting certain thresholds (net worth, turnover, or net profit) to spend at least 2% of their average net profit (over the last three financial years) on CSR activities.
• This is a minimum spending requirement mandated by law.
• This statement is incorrect.

Correct Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation of Correct Answer

1.        Statement 1: Correct. CSR expenditures that directly benefit the company or employees are excluded under the CSR rules.

2.        Statement 2: Incorrect. The Companies Act mandates a minimum spending of 2% of average net profits over the last three financial years for eligible companies.

Techniques Summary

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled CSR provisions under the Companies Act, 2013.

2.        Logical Deductions: Differentiated between permissible and impermissible CSR activities and verified the statutory spending requirement.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Ensured consistency with legal mandates.

With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements:

1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors

2. RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts.

3. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the basic principles and uses of radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs).

2.        Logical Deductions: Analysed the plausibility of each statement based on known characteristics of RTGs and their applications.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified whether RTGs align with concepts like fission reactors or specific isotopes.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: RTGs are miniature fission reactors.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• RTGs are not fission reactors. They generate electricity by converting heat released from the natural radioactive decay of isotopes, such as Plutonium-238, into electricity using thermoelectric materials.
• Fission reactors involve splitting of atomic nuclei, which is not the process used in RTGs.
• This statement is incorrect.

Statement 2: RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts.

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• RTGs are widely used in spacecraft, such as NASA’s Voyager and Mars rovers, where solar power is insufficient. The steady energy provided by radioactive decay makes them ideal for long-duration missions in deep space.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 3: RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Plutonium-238 is a commonly used isotope in RTGs. While it is not directly a by-product of weapons development, it is produced in nuclear reactors and is associated with the nuclear industry. This association is sometimes loosely linked to weapons development processes.
• This statement is correct.

Correct Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation of Correct Answer

1.        Statement 1: Incorrect, as RTGs rely on radioactive decay, not nuclear fission.

2.        Statement 2: Correct, as RTGs are essential for powering spacecraft in environments where solar power is unavailable.

3.        Statement 3: Correct, as Plutonium-238 is a key isotope used in RTGs and is linked to nuclear reactor operations, often overlapping with weapons-related technologies.

Techniques Summary

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified the key processes in RTGs and their space applications.

2.        Logical Deductions: Distinguished RTGs from fission reactors and confirmed the use of Plutonium-238.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified each statement against known facts about RTGs.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.

Statement-II: Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but and Statement-II does not explains Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled basic astrophysics principles regarding stellar lifetimes and nuclear reactions.

2.        Logical Deductions: Analysed the relationship between a star's size, rate of nuclear reactions, and lifespan.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified the interplay of mass, energy output, and lifetime between giant stars and dwarf stars.

Analysis of Statements

Statement-I: Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Giant stars have much higher masses compared to dwarf stars. Their immense mass drives a significantly faster rate of nuclear fusion, causing them to exhaust their fuel rapidly. As a result, giant stars have shorter lifespans (millions of years) compared to dwarf stars, which can last for billions or even trillions of years.
• This statement is incorrect.

Statement-II: Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions.

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Giant stars, due to their higher core pressures and temperatures, have a much faster rate of nuclear fusion reactions than dwarf stars. This high rate of energy generation is what makes them more luminous but also shortens their lifespan.
• This statement is correct.

Correct Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Explanation of Correct Answer

1.        Statement-I: Incorrect, because giant stars burn through their nuclear fuel at a faster rate and thus have shorter lifespans compared to dwarf stars.

2.        Statement-II: Correct, because giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions due to higher core temperatures and pressures, resulting in a faster energy output.

Techniques Summary

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Applied basic knowledge of stellar evolution and nuclear fusion rates.

2.        Logical Deductions: Connected the faster nuclear reaction rate in giant stars to their shorter lifespans.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Ensured consistency between statements and astrophysical facts.

Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increase blood flow?

(a) Nitric oxide

(b) Nitrous oxide

(c) Nitrogen dioxide

(d) Nitrogen pentoxide

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the biological processes involved in blood vessel dilation.

2.        Logical Deductions: Evaluated each option based on its chemical properties and physiological relevance.

3.        Elimination of Extremes: Discarded options that are not synthesized in the human body or are unrelated to vasodilation.

Analysis of Options

(a) Nitric oxide

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Nitric oxide (NO) is a signalling molecule synthesized in the human body by endothelial cells from L-arginine via the enzyme nitric oxide synthase (NOS). It plays a critical role in vasodilation, relaxing the smooth muscles in blood vessels, and increasing blood flow.
• This option is correct.

(b) Nitrous oxide

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Nitrous oxide (N₂O) is a gas used as an anaesthetic and analgesic in medical settings. It is not synthesized in the human body and does not function in blood vessel dilation.
• This option is incorrect.

(c) Nitrogen dioxide

• Technique Used: Elimination of Extremes.
• Nitrogen dioxide (NO₂) is a toxic gas primarily found as a pollutant in the atmosphere. It has no role in physiological processes or vasodilation.
• This option is incorrect.

(d) Nitrogen pentoxide

• Technique Used: Elimination of Extremes.
• Nitrogen pentoxide (N₂O₅) is a chemical compound used industrially and is not synthesized in the human body. It has no role in biological processes.
• This option is incorrect.

Correct Answer: (a) Nitric oxide

Explanation of Correct Answer

• Nitric oxide (NO) is synthesized in the human body and acts as a key vasodilator by signalling smooth muscle cells to relax, which leads to increased blood flow.
• It plays an essential role in maintaining blood pressure, improving circulation, and supporting cardiovascular health.

Techniques Summary

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recognized nitric oxide as a biologically relevant molecule involved in vasodilation.

2.        Logical Deductions: Differentiated between medical uses of nitrous oxide and physiological functions of nitric oxide.

3.        Elimination of Extremes: Removed options that are not synthesized in the body or have no role in blood flow regulation.

Consider the following activities:

1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft

2. Monitoring of precipitation

3. Tracking the migration of animals

In how many of the above activities can the radars be used?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the applications of radar technology across different fields.

2.        Logical Deductions: Evaluated each activity to determine if radar can perform the described function.

3.        Elimination of Extremes: Discarded activities clearly outside the known capabilities of radar.

Analysis of Each Activity

1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Radars operate by emitting radio waves and detecting their reflections, which is useful for locating objects or monitoring movement. However, identifying narcotics requires chemical or spectroscopic techniques (e.g., X-rays, sniffers, or spectrometers), not radar.
• Radars cannot be used for this purpose.
• This activity is not radar-compatible.

2. Monitoring of precipitation

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Weather radars (e.g., Doppler radar) are extensively used to monitor precipitation, including rainfall, snow, and hail. These radars measure the intensity and movement of precipitation by detecting reflected radio waves from raindrops or ice particles.
• Radars are suitable for this activity.
• This activity is radar-compatible.

3. Tracking the migration of animals

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Radars are commonly used in ecological studies to track the movement of birds, bats, and insects. They can detect and monitor animal movements over large areas, particularly for studying migration patterns.
• Radars are suitable for this activity.
• This activity is radar-compatible.

Correct Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation of Correct Answer

1.        Activity 1: Identification of narcotics requires chemical analysis tools, not radar.

2.        Activity 2: Radars are extensively used to monitor precipitation.

3.        Activity 3: Radars are used for tracking the migration of animals.

Techniques Summary

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recognized radar applications in weather monitoring and ecological studies.

2.        Logical Deductions: Differentiated between radar capabilities and other technologies used for narcotics detection.

3.        Elimination of Extremes: Discarded the activity that was unrelated to radar capabilities.

Consider the following aircraft:

1. Rafael

2. MiG-29

3. Tejas MK-1

How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the classification of fighter aircraft generations and the characteristics of the mentioned aircraft.

2.        Logical Deductions: Assessed each aircraft to determine if it meets the criteria for fifth-generation fighters.

3.        Elimination of Extremes: Excluded aircraft that do not fit the advanced features required for fifth-generation classification.

Characteristics of Fifth-Generation Fighter Aircraft

Fifth-generation fighters are characterized by:

• Stealth technology.
• Advanced avionics and sensors.
• Supermaneuverability.
• Data fusion capabilities.
• Network-centric warfare readiness.

Analysis of Each Aircraft

1. Rafael

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The Dassault Rafale is a 4.5-generation fighter aircraft. It incorporates advanced avionics, weapons systems, and some stealth features but does not meet all criteria for a fifth-generation fighter.
• This is not a fifth-generation fighter.

2. MiG-29

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• The Mikoyan MiG-29 is a fourth-generation fighter developed by Russia. It lacks stealth capabilities and other advanced features required for fifth-generation classification.
• This is not a fifth-generation fighter.

3. Tejas MK-1

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The Tejas MK-1, developed by India, is a light combat aircraft classified as a fourth-generation fighter. It does not meet the stealth or advanced avionics requirements for fifth-generation classification.
• This is not a fifth-generation fighter.

Correct Answer: (d) None

Explanation of Correct Answer

1.        Rafale: A 4.5-generation aircraft, not fifth-generation.

2.        MiG-29: A fourth-generation aircraft, not fifth-generation.

3.        Tejas MK-1: A fourth-generation aircraft, not fifth-generation.

Techniques Summary

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Differentiated between fourth, 4.5, and fifth-generation fighter capabilities.

2.        Logical Deductions: Assessed the specific features of each aircraft against fifth-generation requirements.

3.        Elimination of Extremes: Excluded all options as none of the aircraft qualify as fifth-generation.

In which of the following are hydrogels used?

1. Controlled drug delivery in patients

2. Mobile air-conditioning systems

3. Preparation of industrial lubricants.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the properties and diverse applications of hydrogels.

2.        Logical Deductions: Analysed each application to confirm if it aligns with the known uses of hydrogels.

3.        Process of Elimination by Context: Cross-checked applications against the characteristics of hydrogels.

Properties of Hydrogels

• Hydrogels are water-absorbent polymers capable of holding large amounts of water or biological fluids.
• They are highly versatile due to their biocompatibility, elasticity, and ability to control moisture.

Analysis of Applications

1. Controlled drug delivery in patients

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Hydrogels are widely used in biomedical applications, including controlled drug delivery. Their ability to release drugs in a controlled manner makes them ideal for this purpose.
• This application is correct.

2. Mobile air-conditioning systems

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Hydrogels can absorb and release water, making them useful in cooling technologies. They are sometimes used in mobile air-conditioning systems to regulate temperature through evaporative cooling.
• This application is correct.

3. Preparation of industrial lubricants

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Hydrogels are used as components in lubricants to reduce friction and wear. Their ability to retain water and provide a smooth interface makes them suitable for industrial applications.
• This application is correct.

Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation of Correct Answer

1.        Controlled drug delivery in patients: Hydrogels are extensively used in pharmaceuticals for drug release systems.

2.        Mobile air-conditioning systems: Hydrogels help in temperature regulation through their water-absorbent and evaporative properties.

3.        Preparation of industrial lubricants: Hydrogels contribute to the production of water-based and hybrid lubricants.

Techniques Summary

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified established uses of hydrogels in medical, cooling, and industrial domains.

2.        Logical Deductions: Matched the properties of hydrogels with the listed applications.

3.        Process of Elimination by Context: Verified each option against known applications of hydrogels.

Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen?

(a) Hydrogen peroxide

(b) Hydronium

(c) Oxygen

(d) Water vapour

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the working principle of fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEVs).

2.        Logical Deductions: Assessed the byproducts of the chemical reaction in hydrogen-powered fuel cells.

3.        Elimination of Extremes: Discarded options unrelated to the expected byproducts of hydrogen and oxygen reactions.

Explanation of Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles (FCEVs)

• FCEVs are powered by hydrogen fuel cells, where hydrogen reacts with oxygen from the air to generate electricity.
• The key reaction is: 2H₂ + O₂ à 2H₂O + electricity + heat      
• The only byproduct of this reaction is water (H₂O), which is released as water vapour through the exhaust.

Analysis of Options

(a) Hydrogen peroxide

• Hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂) is not a byproduct of fuel cells. It forms in entirely different chemical reactions.
• This option is incorrect.

(b) Hydronium

• Hydronium (H₃O⁺) ions exist in aqueous solutions, not as an exhaust product.
• This option is incorrect.

(c) Oxygen

• Oxygen is consumed during the fuel cell reaction; it is not released as an exhaust product.
• This option is incorrect.

(d) Water vapour

• The reaction between hydrogen and oxygen in fuel cells produces water, which is released as water vapour.
• This option is correct.

Correct Answer: (d) Water vapour

Explanation of Correct Answer

1.        In hydrogen fuel cells, the reaction between hydrogen and oxygen produces water as the only byproduct.

2.        This water is expelled from the vehicle in the form of water vapour, making FCEVs a zero-emission technology.

Techniques Summary

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the chemical reaction in fuel cells.

2.        Logical Deductions: Matched the expected byproduct (water vapour) with the options.

3.        Elimination of Extremes: Discarded unrelated options like hydrogen peroxide and hydronium.

Recently the term “pumped-storage hydropower” is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following?

(a) Irrigation of terraced crop fields

(b) Lift irrigation of cereal crops

(c) Long duration energy storage

(d) Rainwater harvesting system

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the principle and applications of pumped-storage hydropower systems.

2.        Logical Deductions: Analysed the suitability of the term in relation to the provided options.

3.        Elimination of Extremes: Discarded options unrelated to hydropower systems.

Analysis of Options

(a) Irrigation of terraced crop fields

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Pumped-storage hydropower is unrelated to irrigation. It is a method of energy storage and power generation using the elevation difference of water reservoirs.
• This option is incorrect.

(b) Lift irrigation of cereal crops

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Lift irrigation refers to pumping water to higher elevations for crop irrigation, which does not involve the energy storage principles of pumped-storage hydropower.
• This option is incorrect.

(c) Long duration energy storage

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Pumped-storage hydropower involves pumping water to an elevated reservoir when electricity demand is low and releasing it through turbines to generate electricity during peak demand. It serves as a long-duration energy storage system, enabling grid stability and renewable energy integration.
• This option is correct.

(d) Rainwater harvesting system

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Rainwater harvesting involves collecting and storing rainwater for direct use, not for power generation or energy storage.
• This option is incorrect.

Correct Answer: (c) Long duration energy storage

Explanation of Correct Answer

1.        Pumped-storage hydropower:

o    It operates as a long-duration energy storage system by storing potential energy in the form of elevated water.

o    It balances power grids by storing excess electricity during off-peak hours and generating electricity during high-demand periods.

o    It is increasingly discussed in the context of supporting renewable energy sources like wind and solar, which are intermittent.

Techniques Summary

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified the core function of pumped-storage hydropower as energy storage.

2.        Logical Deductions: Differentiated between energy storage and agricultural or rainwater harvesting systems.

3.        Elimination of Extremes: Discarded options that did not align with energy storage principles.

“Membrane Bioreactors” are often discussed in the context of

(a) Assisted reproductive technologies

(b) Drug delivery nanotechnologies

(c) Vaccine production technologies

(d) Wastewater treatment technologies

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the primary applications of membrane bioreactors (MBRs).

2.        Logical Deductions: Analysed the suitability of MBR technology in each given context.

3.        Elimination of Extremes: Discarded options unrelated to the known functionality of MBRs.

Analysis of Options

(a) Assisted reproductive technologies

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Assisted reproductive technologies, such as IVF, rely on laboratory techniques that manipulate gametes or embryos. Membrane bioreactors are not used in this field.
• This option is incorrect.

(b) Drug delivery nanotechnologies

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Drug delivery nanotechnologies involve using nanoparticles or molecular carriers to transport drugs. Membrane bioreactors, which focus on biological wastewater treatment, are not part of this domain.
• This option is incorrect.

(c) Vaccine production technologies

• Technique Used: Elimination of Extremes.
• While bioreactors are often used in vaccine production, membrane bioreactors (specifically) are not designed for this purpose.
• This option is incorrect.

(d) Wastewater treatment technologies

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Membrane bioreactors are advanced systems combining biological treatment and membrane filtration for wastewater treatment. They are highly effective in removing contaminants, pathogens, and impurities, making them a key technology in water management.
• This option is correct.

Correct Answer: (d) Wastewater treatment technologies

Explanation of Correct Answer

• Membrane Bioreactors (MBRs):
• These are hybrid systems integrating a biological treatment process (e.g., activated sludge) with membrane filtration (microfiltration or ultrafiltration).
• They are widely used in wastewater treatment technologies to produce high-quality treated water suitable for reuse or safe discharge.

Techniques Summary

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recognized MBRs as a wastewater treatment technology.

2.        Logical Deductions: Differentiated between bioreactors in general and membrane bioreactors.

3.        Elimination of Extremes: Discarded options unrelated to water treatment.

With reference to the Indian economy, “Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations” are the instruments of:

(a) Bond market

(b) Forex market

(c) Money market

(d) Stock market

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the purpose and operation of Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations (CBLO).

2.        Process of Elimination by Context: Analysed each market to identify where CBLO is commonly used.

3.        Logical Deductions: Matched CBLO characteristics to the primary functions of the given financial markets.

Analysis of Options

(a) Bond market

• Technique Used: Process of Elimination.
• The bond market deals with the issuance and trading of debt instruments like government and corporate bonds. CBLO is not directly related to bonds but focuses on short-term lending and borrowing secured by collateral.
• This option is incorrect.

(b) Forex market

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• The forex market involves currency trading, which is unrelated to CBLO. CBLO is primarily a domestic money market instrument for short-term liquidity management.
• This option is incorrect.

(c) Money market

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• CBLO is a money market instrument used for short-term borrowing and lending. It enables participants to meet their liquidity needs using government securities as collateral. The Clearing Corporation of India Limited (CCIL) facilitates these transactions.
• This option is correct.

(d) Stock market

• Technique Used: Elimination of Extremes.
• The stock market involves trading equity shares, which does not align with CBLO, a money market instrument designed for secured borrowing and lending.
• This option is incorrect.

Correct Answer: (c) Money market

Explanation of Correct Answer

1.        CBLO Characteristics:

o    CBLO is a short-term instrument allowing participants to borrow and lend funds against government securities as collateral.

o    It is widely used in the money market, particularly by banks, mutual funds, and financial institutions, to manage liquidity.

2.        Purpose: CBLO facilitates secured borrowing and lending, making it an efficient tool for short-term financial needs.

Techniques Summary

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified CBLO as a money market instrument.

2.        Process of Elimination by Context: Excluded bond, forex, and stock markets as they do not deal with short-term secured loans.

3.        Logical Deductions: Linked CBLO to its role in managing short-term liquidity in the money market.