Who of the following is the author of the books “The India Way” and “Why Bharat Matters”?

(a) Bhupender Yadav

(b) Nalin Mehta

(c) Shashi Tharoor

(d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar

Techniques Used

• Use of Familiar Terms: Identified keywords like "The India Way" and "Why Bharat Matters" as related to contemporary political or strategic affairs.
• Logical Deductions: Considered the expertise and public roles of the listed authors to match them with the themes of the books.
• Elimination of Extremes: Removed options where the author’s known work does not align with the context of the titles.
• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled recent discussions and publications on India's foreign policy and strategic importance.

Analysis of Options

Option (a): Bhupender Yadav

• Bhupender Yadav is known for his work in Indian politics and labour reforms. He has not authored books specifically focused on strategic affairs or foreign policy.
• This option does not align with the themes of "The India Way" and "Why Bharat Matters."

Option (b): Nalin Mehta

• Nalin Mehta is a social scientist and journalist, known for writing on media, society, and Indian politics.
• His expertise does not match the strategic and foreign policy themes of the books in question.

Option (c): Shashi Tharoor

• Shashi Tharoor is a prolific author and expert on international relations. However, he is not the author of either "The India Way" or "Why Bharat Matters."
• While he has written extensively on India's global role, these specific titles are not his work.

Option (d): Subrahmanyam Jaishankar

• Subrahmanyam Jaishankar is India’s current Minister of External Affairs and a former diplomat.
• "The India Way" focuses on India's foreign policy, reflecting his expertise and role. "Why Bharat Matters" also aligns with his focus on India's strategic importance in global affairs.
• This option is consistent with the themes of the books and is the correct answer.

Correct Answer: (d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of Familiar Terms: Recognized "The India Way" as a book focused on India's foreign policy, connecting it to Subrahmanyam Jaishankar.

·          Logical Deductions: Matched the author’s expertise (Jaishankar’s diplomatic background) with the strategic themes of the books.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Removed options that did not fit the context, such as Bhupender Yadav and Nalin Mehta.

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Leveraged awareness of recent publications to identify the correct author.

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) All three pairs

(d) None of the pairs

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Applied to validate Argentina’s economic crisis.
• Logical Deductions: Correlated Sudan’s internal conflict with familiar terms like "war" and "paramilitary."
• Elimination of Extremes: Ruled out the extreme claim of Turkey rescinding NATO membership.
• Look for Contradictions: Identified contradictions in the claim about Turkey and NATO.

Analysis of Pairs

Pair 1: Argentina – Worst economic crisis

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense.
• Argentina is currently facing a severe economic crisis characterized by hyperinflation, soaring debt, and currency devaluation.
• Recent global reports highlight Argentina’s struggle with rising poverty and economic instability, confirming this statement.
• Based on general awareness and ongoing global news, this pair is correctly matched.

Pair 2: Sudan Forces – War between the country’s regular army and paramilitary

• Techniques Used: Logical Deductions, Use of Familiar Terms.
• Sudan is undergoing an intense internal conflict between the Sudanese Armed Forces (regular army) and the paramilitary Rapid Support Forces (RSF).
• The term "war" aligns with reports of widespread violence, displacement, and humanitarian crises in Sudan.
• Logical deduction based on familiar terms makes this pair correctly matched.

Pair 3: Turkey – Rescinded its membership of NATO

• Techniques Used: Elimination of Extremes, Look for Contradictions.
• Turkey is a vital NATO member, strategically significant due to its geographic location and military strength.
• Although Turkey has had disagreements with NATO, especially concerning Sweden’s accession, it has not withdrawn its membership.
• The claim that Turkey rescinded its NATO membership is extreme and contradicts established facts.
• This pair is incorrectly matched.

Correct Answer (b) Only two pairs

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Confirmed Argentina’s economic crisis as ongoing and widely reported.

·          Logical Deductions: Identified Sudan’s internal conflict using familiar terms like "war" and "paramilitary," which match current events.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Ruled out Turkey’s NATO withdrawal as an implausible and extreme claim.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified that the claim about Turkey rescinding NATO membership contradicts its established role in the alliance.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.

Statement-II: Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled information about the Sumed pipeline and its strategic importance in global oil transportation.
• Logical Deductions: Analysed the geographical connection and strategic implications of the Sumed pipeline.
• Look for Contradictions: Verified whether the statements align with the actual function and location of the Sumed pipeline.

Analysis of Statements

Statement-I: Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The Sumed (Suez-Mediterranean) pipeline is indeed a strategic route for transporting oil from the Persian Gulf to Europe. It is especially important as an alternative when large oil tankers cannot transit the Suez Canal due to size constraints.
• This statement is correct.

Statement-II: Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• The Sumed pipeline connects the Ain Sokhna terminal on the Red Sea to the Sidi Kerir terminal on the Mediterranean Sea in Egypt. It provides a critical link between these two seas, bypassing the Suez Canal for oil transportation.
• This statement is correct.

Correct Explanation of Statements

• Statement-II explains Statement-I, as the geographical connection provided by the Sumed pipeline is precisely why it is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil shipments to Europe.

Correct Answer (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified the Sumed pipeline as a key alternative route for oil transportation to Europe, bypassing Suez Canal constraints.

·          Logical Deductions: Linked the pipeline’s geographical connection between the Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea to its strategic role.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified that both statements align with the pipeline’s function and geographical features.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.

2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the climatic and geographical characteristics of the Red Sea region.
• Logical Deductions: Analysed whether rivers flow into the Red Sea based on its geographical features and surroundings.
• Look for Contradictions: Verified the consistency of each statement with known facts about the Red Sea.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The Red Sea is located in a hyper-arid region, where precipitation is minimal due to the desert climate surrounding it. This results in very low rainfall throughout the year.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 2: No water enters the Red Sea from rivers

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• There are no major rivers that flow into the Red Sea. Its primary water source is inflow from the Gulf of Aden via the Bab-el-Mandeb strait, and it is surrounded by deserts with no significant riverine systems.
• This statement is correct.

Correct Answer (c) Both 1 and 2

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recognized the Red Sea’s desert surroundings and the absence of major rivers in its geographical context.

·          Logical Deductions: Concluded that the arid climate leads to negligible precipitation and the lack of rivers supports the claim of no freshwater inflow.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified that both statements align with established geographical and climatic facts.

According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of Sulphur dioxide emissions?

(a) Locomotives using fossil fuels

(b) Ships using fossil fuels

(c) Extraction of metals from ores

(d) Power plants using fossil fuels.

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the primary sources of sulphur dioxide (SO₂) emissions and their scale.
• Logical Deductions: Compared the contribution of different activities to SO₂ emissions based on their energy and material use.
• Elimination of Extremes: Removed options with relatively smaller or localized emissions.
• Look for Contradictions: Verified each option against the large-scale emission patterns reported by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).

Analysis of Options

Option (a): Locomotives using fossil fuels

• Technique Used: Elimination of Extremes.
• Locomotives using fossil fuels contribute to sulphur dioxide emissions, but their scale is much smaller compared to power plants and industrial processes.
• This option is incorrect.

Option (b): Ships using fossil fuels

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Ships burning heavy fuel oil emit sulphur dioxide, particularly in international waters, but this source is not the largest globally. Regulations like the IMO 2020 sulphur cap have significantly reduced emissions from this sector.
• This option is incorrect.

Option (c): Extraction of metals from ores

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Metal extraction processes, especially smelting of ores like sulphide ores, release sulphur dioxide. However, the scale of emissions from these operations is smaller compared to power plants.
• This option is incorrect.

Option (d): Power plants using fossil fuels

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Power plants burning fossil fuels, particularly coal and oil, are the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions. These plants release SO₂ as a byproduct of burning sulphur-containing fossil fuels. This has been a major environmental concern globally, as confirmed by the EPA and other agencies.
• This option is correct.

Correct Answer (d) Power plants using fossil fuels

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified power plants as the largest contributors to SO₂ emissions due to the combustion of large quantities of sulphur-containing coal and oil.

·          Logical Deductions: Compared the relative scales of emissions from power plants, ships, locomotives, and metal extraction processes.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Removed sources with relatively smaller contributions or localized impacts, like locomotives and metal extraction.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified the dominance of power plants in global SO₂ emissions as per EPA reports and global energy trends.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.

Statement-II: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Applied understanding of sovereign debt and US Treasury Bonds.
• Logical Deductions: Analysed the implications of a debt default and the nature of US government debt.
• Look for Contradictions: Verified each statement's alignment with economic principles and global financial practices.

Analysis of Statements

Statement-I: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• If the USA defaults on its debt, it implies an inability to meet its financial obligations temporarily or permanently.
• However, the default does not mean bondholders lose the legal right to claim payment. The government would still owe the bondholders and might resume payments later when possible.
• This statement is incorrect because defaulting does not nullify bondholders' legal claims.

Statement-II: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• US government debt is considered sovereign debt, backed not by hard assets but by the creditworthiness and trust in the US government's ability to repay. This is why US Treasury Bonds are considered one of the safest investments globally.
• This statement is correct.

Correct Answer (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled that sovereign debt defaults do not erase bondholders' legal claims and that US government debt relies on its creditworthiness.

·          Logical Deductions: Distinguished between a temporary inability to pay (default) and a complete forfeiture of bondholder rights, which does not occur in a default scenario.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified that US Treasury Bonds are not secured by hard assets, aligning with the description in Statement-II.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-l: Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.

Statement-II: The syndicated loan can be fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the concept and structure of syndicated loans.
• Logical Deductions: Analysed the types of financial arrangements under syndicated lending.
• Look for Contradictions: Verified whether the claims about risk sharing and credit structures align with syndicated loan practices.

Analysis of Statements

Statement-I: Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Syndicated lending involves multiple lenders (banks or financial institutions) pooling funds to offer a loan to a single borrower, typically for large projects or corporations. This structure inherently spreads the risk of borrower default across all participating lenders.
• This statement is correct.

Statement-II: The syndicated loan can be fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions, Look for Contradictions.
• Syndicated loans can be structured as either a term loan (fixed amount/lump sum) or a revolving credit facility/credit line. Revolving credit allows the borrower to withdraw funds as needed up to a specified limit.
• Therefore, the claim that syndicated loans "cannot be a credit line" is incorrect.

Correct Answer (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified risk sharing as a core feature of syndicated lending and noted the flexibility in loan structures, including credit lines.

·          Logical Deductions: Recognized that syndicated loans are tailored to the borrower’s needs, allowing for both term loans and credit facilities.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified that revolving credit lines are a standard offering in syndicated loans, disproving Statement-II.

 Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee:

1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India RBI alignment with its monetary policy.

2. It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet.

3. It is insured against inflation by its very design.

4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Applied understanding of the digital rupee (Central Bank Digital Currency - CBDC) and its characteristics.
• Logical Deductions: Analysed the implications of the digital rupee’s design and operational framework.
• Look for Contradictions: Verified each statement against the known features of the digital rupee as announced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• Elimination of Extremes: Removed statements that conflict with the fundamental attributes of CBDCs.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The digital rupee is a sovereign currency issued by the RBI, functioning as a legal tender. It is designed to complement physical cash and align with the RBI’s monetary policy objectives.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 2: It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Like physical currency, the digital rupee is issued by the RBI and recorded as a liability on its balance sheet under "currency in circulation."
• This statement is correct.

Statement 3: It is insured against inflation by its very design

• Technique Used: Look for Contradictions.
• The digital rupee, like physical currency, is subject to inflationary pressures. It does not inherently have any design feature that insures it against inflation, which is governed by broader monetary and fiscal policies.
• This statement is incorrect.

Statement 4: It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• The digital rupee is expected to be freely convertible with both physical cash and deposits in commercial banks, ensuring seamless integration with the existing monetary system.
• This statement is correct.

Correct Answer (d) 1, 2 and 4

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified the digital rupee as a sovereign currency aligned with monetary policy and freely convertible within the monetary system.

·          Logical Deductions: Confirmed its liability status on the RBI’s balance sheet and convertible nature while recognizing that it is not insulated from inflation.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified that inflation insurance is not an inherent feature of any currency, including the digital rupee.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Discarded the statement about inflation insurance due to its inconsistency with economic principles.

With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets?

1. Nayaputta

2. Shakyamuni

3. Tathagata

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled historical and religious texts referencing Gautama Buddha and his common epithets.
• Logical Deductions: Analysed the meaning and context of each epithet to verify its association with Gautama Buddha.
• Elimination of Extremes: Removed options that contradict well-documented historical facts.

Analysis of Epithets

1. Nayaputta

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Nayaputta (meaning "son of the Naya clan") is commonly associated with Mahavira, the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism, and not with Gautama Buddha.
• This epithet does not apply to Gautama Buddha.
• This statement is incorrect.

2. Shakyamuni

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Shakyamuni (meaning "Sage of the Shakyas") is a widely recognized epithet of Gautama Buddha, reflecting his origin from the Shakya clan.
• This statement is correct.

3. Tathagata

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Tathagata (meaning "one who has thus gone" or "one who has thus come") is a term frequently used by Gautama Buddha to refer to himself in Buddhist texts, emphasizing his spiritual journey and enlightenment.
• This statement is correct.

Correct Answer (b) 2 and 3 only

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified Shakyamuni and Tathagata as established epithets of Gautama Buddha, while recognizing Nayaputta as unrelated to him.

·          Logical Deductions: Matched the meaning of each epithet with the life and teachings of Gautama Buddha.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Removed options including Nayaputta due to its association with Jainism, not Buddhism.

Consider the following information:

In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled historical and archaeological information about key sites in India.
• Logical Deductions: Matched the state and description for each site based on known facts.
• Elimination of Extremes: Removed rows with clearly incorrect associations.
• Look for Contradictions: Verified the accuracy of each match with archaeological records.

Analysis of Rows

Row 1: Chandraketugarh – Odisha – Trading Port Town

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Chandraketugarh is an archaeological site in West Bengal, not Odisha. It was an ancient trading port town connected to the Mauryan and Gupta periods.
• This row is incorrectly matched.

Row 2: Inamgaon – Maharashtra – Chalcolithic Site

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Inamgaon is a well-known Chalcolithic site located in Maharashtra. Excavations have revealed evidence of a settlement from the late Harappan period.
• This row is correctly matched.

Row 3: Mangadu – Kerala – Megalithic Site

• Technique Used: Elimination of Extremes.
• Mangadu is not a megalithic site in Kerala. The term Mangadu generally refers to a location in Tamil Nadu, and no notable megalithic site is associated with this name in Kerala.
• This row is incorrectly matched.

Row 4: Salihundam – Andhra Pradesh – Rock Cave Shrines

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Salihundam, located in Andhra Pradesh, is known for its Buddhist stupas and remnants from the 2nd century BCE to the 2nd century CE. It is not associated with rock cave shrines.
• This row is incorrectly matched.

Correct Answer (a) 1 and 2

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified Inamgaon as a Chalcolithic site in Maharashtra and Chandraketugarh as a trading port (though misattributed to Odisha).

·          Logical Deductions: Analyzed the archaeological characteristics of each site and compared them to their descriptions.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Removed rows with mismatched states or inaccurate descriptions.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified known attributes of sites like Salihundam to rule out incorrect descriptions.

Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?

(a) Krishnadevaraya

(b) Narasimha Saluva

(c) Muhammad Shah III

(d) Yusuf Adil Shah

Correct Answer: (d) Yusuf Adil Shah

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the historical relations between Indian rulers and the Portuguese during the medieval period.
• Logical Deductions: Analysed the geographic and political context of Bhatkal and the interaction of local rulers with the Portuguese.
• Elimination of Extremes: Removed rulers who were either unrelated to the region or timeline of Portuguese activities.

Analysis of Options

Option (a): Krishnadevaraya

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Krishnadevaraya was a ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire in the early 16th century. While he engaged in significant interactions with European traders, there is no record of him granting permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal.
• This option is incorrect.

Option (b): Narasimha Saluva

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Narasimha Saluva was the founder of the Saluva dynasty of the Vijayanagara Empire in the late 15th century. His reign predates the significant arrival of the Portuguese in India.
• This option is incorrect.

Option (c): Muhammad Shah III

• Technique Used: Elimination of Extremes.
• Muhammad Shah III was a Bahmani Sultan whose rule also predates significant Portuguese interaction in India. He was not directly associated with granting such permissions.
• This option is incorrect.

Option (d): Yusuf Adil Shah

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Yusuf Adil Shah, the founder of the Adil Shahi dynasty of Bijapur, interacted with the Portuguese during the early 16th century. He granted them permission to build a fort at Bhatkal, which was a strategic trading port on the western coast of India.
• This option is correct.

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recognized Yusuf Adil Shah as a key figure in fostering early Portuguese relations in the Deccan.

·          Logical Deductions: Connected Bhatkal's location on the western coast to the Adil Shahi dynasty's influence and their engagement with European powers.

·          Elimination of Extremes: Removed rulers unrelated to the region or the Portuguese era.

With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, statements: consider the following

1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of had harvests or natural calamities.

2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.

Which of the statements given above is ware correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (b) 2 only

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the historical context and features of revenue systems during Cornwallis's administration.
• Logical Deductions: Analysed whether the statements aligned with the policies under the Ryotwari and Permanent Settlement systems.
• Look for Contradictions: Verified the accuracy of each statement against the principles of the revenue collection systems.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The Ryotwari Settlement, introduced later by Thomas Munro in areas like Madras and Bombay, required direct payment of revenue by the ryots (peasants) to the government. There was no provision for revenue exemption during bad harvests or natural calamities, and revenue demands were often rigid and led to exploitation.
• This statement is incorrect.

Statement 2: Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• The Permanent Settlement of 1793, introduced by Lord Cornwallis, fixed the land revenue permanently. It made the Zamindars responsible for collecting revenue. If the Zamindar failed to pay the fixed revenue to the state by the due date, he would lose his Zamindari as part of strict enforcement.
• This statement is correct.

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified the key features of the Ryotwari and Permanent Settlement systems.
Logical Deductions: Recognized the rigid revenue policies under both systems and the strict penalties imposed on Zamindars under the Permanent Settlement.
Look for Contradictions: Verified that the Ryotwari Settlement did not exempt peasants during natural calamities and matched the Permanent Settlement’s enforcement policy.

Consider the following statements:

1. There are parables in Upanishads.

2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither I nor 2

Correct Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the historical context of the Upanishads and Puranas, as well as their content and themes.
• Logical Deductions: Analysed the philosophical nature of the Upanishads and the timeline of their composition relative to the Puranas.
• Look for Contradictions: Verified both statements for consistency with historical and religious texts.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: There are parables in Upanishads.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The Upanishads often use parables (symbolic stories) to convey philosophical ideas and spiritual truths. For example:
• The Chandogya Upanishad includes the parable of Satyakama Jabala to explain the pursuit of truth and knowledge.
• The Brihadaranyaka Upanishad uses parables like the dialogue between Yajnavalkya and his wife Maitreyi to discuss the nature of the self (Atman).
• This statement is correct.

Statement 2: Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas.

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• The Upanishads, often referred to as Vedanta, were composed between 800 BCE and 200 BCE, forming the philosophical core of the Vedic tradition.
• The Puranas, such as the Vishnu Purana or Bhagavata Purana, were composed much later, primarily between 300 CE and 1500 CE, serving as mythological and devotional texts.
• This statement is correct.

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recognized the Upanishads as early philosophical texts using parables and the Puranas as later mythological compositions.

·          Logical Deductions: Established the chronological precedence of the Upanishads over the Puranas based on their historical and literary context.

·          Look for Contradictions: Confirmed that the timeline and content of both text types are consistent with the given statements.

Consider the following statements:

1. India is a member of the International Grains Council.

2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (a) 1 only

Techniques Used

• Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled India's membership in key international organizations and the role of the International Grains Council (IGC).
• Logical Deductions: Analysed the requirements for international trade in grains like rice and wheat.
• Look for Contradictions: Verified whether membership in the IGC is mandatory for trade.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: India is a member of the International Grains Council.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• India is a member of the International Grains Council (IGC), which promotes cooperation in grain trade and provides market information on grains, rice, and oilseeds.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 2: A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions, Look for Contradictions.
• Membership in the IGC is not mandatory for a country to export or import grains like rice and wheat. Many non-member countries engage in international grain trade. The IGC primarily provides data, analysis, and a platform for dialogue rather than regulating trade.
• This statement is incorrect.

Detailed Explanation of Techniques Used

·          Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recognized India's membership in the IGC and understood that trade in grains is not contingent upon IGC membership.

·          Logical Deductions: Concluded that IGC membership is advisory and informational, not a prerequisite for trade.

·          Look for Contradictions: Verified that many countries outside the IGC framework trade in grains without restrictions.

Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO?

(a) Chhau dance

(b) Durga puja

(c) Garba dance

(d) Kumbh mela

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled recent updates to UNESCO’s Intangible Cultural Heritage List regarding Indian cultural elements.

2.        Logical Deductions: Analysed the chronological timeline of additions to the list to identify the most recent.

3.        Elimination of Extremes: Removed options known to have been added earlier to focus on the latest inclusion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1.        Option (a): Chhau dance

o    Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.

o    The Chhau dance was added to UNESCO’s Intangible Cultural Heritage list in 2010. It is a semi-classical dance from Odisha, Jharkhand, and West Bengal.

o    This option is incorrect as it is not the latest inclusion.

2.        Option (b): Durga Puja

o    Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.

o    Durga Puja was included in UNESCO’s list in 2021, recognizing it as a major cultural and religious festival in Kolkata and across India.

o    This option is incorrect as it is not the latest inclusion.

3.        Option (c): Garba dance

o    Technique Used: Logical Deductions and General Knowledge.

o    The Garba dance, a vibrant traditional folk dance from Gujarat performed during Navratri, was added to the UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage list in 2023. This makes it the latest inclusion.

o    This option is correct.

4.        Option (d): Kumbh Mela

o    Technique Used: Elimination of Extremes.

o    The Kumbh Mela was included in UNESCO’s list in 2017. Although significant, it is not the latest addition.

o    This option is incorrect.

Correct Answer: (c) Garba dance

Explanation of Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the specific years when Chhau dance, Durga Puja, and Kumbh Mela were added to the list, which helped focus on Garba as the most recent inclusion.

2.        Logical Deductions: Identified Garba as a prominent cultural event recently recognized for its significance.

3.        Elimination of Extremes: Removed options clearly added earlier, narrowing the choice to the correct one.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region.

Statement-II: There have been military takeovers/coups d’etat in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II in correct

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Applied recent geopolitical knowledge about the Sahel region and its challenges.

2.        Logical Deductions: Analysed the causal link between instability and military coups in the region.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified whether the statements align with recent developments in the Sahel region.

Analysis of Statements

Statement-I: There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The Sahel region, comprising countries like Mali, Niger, Burkina Faso, and Chad, is plagued by instability due to terrorism, ethnic violence, food insecurity, and weak governance.
• Groups like Al-Qaeda and ISIS affiliates operate in the region, worsening the security situation.
• This statement is correct.

Statement-II: There have been military takeovers/coups d’etat in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge and Logical Deductions.
• The Sahel has experienced several coups in recent years, including:
• Mali (2020 and 2021)
• Chad (2021)
• Burkina Faso (2022)
• Niger (2023)
• These military takeovers have contributed to instability and disrupted governance.
• This statement is correct.

Causal Link Between the Statements

• The worsening security situation (Statement-I) is partly caused by military coups (Statement-II), which disrupt governance and weaken counterterrorism efforts. Hence, Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Correct Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

Explanation of Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the security challenges and political instability in the Sahel region.

2.        Logical Deductions: Recognized that military coups contribute to instability by weakening democratic governance and security structures.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified that both statements align with factual developments in the region.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India does not import apples from the United States of America.

Statement-II: In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled India's trade practices and policies regarding genetically modified (GM) food and apple imports.

2.        Logical Deductions: Evaluated the relationship between India's GM food regulations and its apple import practices.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified whether India imports apples from the United States and the relevance of GM food laws to apple imports.

Analysis of Statements

Statement-I: India does not import apples from the United States of America.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge and Look for Contradictions.
• India imports apples from the United States, primarily from Washington State. The U.S. is one of the major suppliers of apples to India.
• This statement is incorrect.

Statement-II: In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• According to India's Food Safety and Standards Act (FSSAI), the import of genetically modified food requires approval from the competent regulatory authority to ensure compliance with safety standards. This law is in place to safeguard public health.
• This statement is correct.

Relationship Between the Statements

• Statement-II does not explain Statement-I, as the import of apples is not related to the prohibition on GM foods. Apples imported into India are not genetically modified.

Correct Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Explanation of Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled that India imports apples from the U.S. and that GM food imports are strictly regulated.

2.        Logical Deductions: Determined that the prohibition of GM food does not explain the trade of non-GM apples.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified India's trade data to confirm the ongoing import of apples from the U.S.

With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: 

While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration

1. He/She shall not preside

2. He/She shall not have the right to speak

3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled constitutional provisions and parliamentary practices regarding the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

2.        Logical Deductions: Analysed the logical constraints on the Speaker’s role during a resolution for removal.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified the accuracy of the statements based on parliamentary rules and the Indian Constitution.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: He/She shall not preside

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• As per Article 96(1) of the Constitution of India, when a resolution for the removal of the Speaker is under consideration, the Speaker shall not preside over the session. Instead, the Deputy Speaker or another member presides.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 2: He/She shall not have the right to speak

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• There is no restriction on the Speaker's right to speak during the debate on the resolution for their removal. The Speaker can speak as a member of the House when allowed by the presiding officer.
• This statement is incorrect.

Statement 3: He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge and Logical Deductions.
• The Speaker, like any member of the House, has the right to vote on resolutions, including one for their removal. However, as a convention, the Speaker votes only in case of a tie (casting vote).
• This statement is incorrect.

Correct Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation of Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled Article 96(1) and the constitutional mandate that the Speaker does not preside during their removal resolution.

2.        Logical Deductions: Determined that the Speaker retains the right to speak and vote, aligning with general parliamentary practices.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified the constitutional text and parliamentary procedures to confirm that Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.

With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution

2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the legislative process in the Indian Parliament and the effect of Lok Sabha dissolution on bills.

2.        Logical Deductions: Analysed the constitutional provisions under Articles 107 and 108.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified whether each scenario aligns with established parliamentary rules.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• As per Article 107(5) of the Constitution, any bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution, except in cases involving financial bills or if they have been passed and sent to the Rajya Sabha.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 2: A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• A bill that has been passed by the Lok Sabha and is pending in the Rajya Sabha does not lapse upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. The new Lok Sabha may take up the bill for consideration.
• This statement is incorrect.

Statement 3: A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• If the President has notified the intention to summon a joint sitting for a bill, the bill does not lapse even if the Lok Sabha is dissolved. This ensures continuity in resolving legislative deadlocks.
• This statement is incorrect.

Correct Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation of Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled that bills pending in the Lok Sabha lapse upon its dissolution, while certain exceptions apply to bills pending in the Rajya Sabha or awaiting joint sittings.

2.        Logical Deductions: Differentiated between pending bills and those passed in one house, understanding their status during dissolution.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Cross-verified scenarios involving joint sittings and the status of bills during Lok Sabha dissolution.

 With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.

2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.

3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the constitutional provisions related to prorogation and dissolution of the Indian Parliament.

2.        Logical Deductions: Analysed the role of the President and the requirement of advice from the Council of Ministers in prorogation and dissolution.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified whether prorogation and dissolution align with constitutional practices and parliamentary conventions.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• The President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers in all executive actions, including prorogation, as per Article 74. Prorogation cannot be initiated solely by the President without ministerial advice.
• This statement is incorrect.

Statement 2: Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die, but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Prorogation typically occurs after the House is adjourned sine die. However, there is no constitutional bar preventing the President from proroguing a House while it is in session.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 3: Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge and Logical Deductions.
• The dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President under Article 85, and the President generally acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Exceptional circumstances (e.g., no functional Council of Ministers) are rare but theoretically possible.
• This statement is correct.

Correct Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Explanation of Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Identified that prorogation and dissolution require ministerial advice, but exceptional circumstances are theoretical.

2.        Logical Deductions: Recognized the flexibility in prorogation and the routine nature of advice in dissolution.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified constitutional provisions and parliamentary practices.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently.

Statement-II: The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I Statement-II explains

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Techniques Used:

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Applied existing knowledge about the European Union's climate policies and legislative actions.

2.        Logical Deductions: Analysed the consistency between the statements and known EU objectives.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Identified discrepancies between the statements and official EU targets.

Analysis of Statements:

Statement-I: The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The European Parliament approved the Net-Zero Industry Act on April 25, 2024, aiming to boost EU production of clean technologies.
• This statement is correct.

Statement-II: The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.

• Technique Used: Look for Contradictions.
• The EU's legally binding target is to achieve climate neutrality by 2050, not 2040.
• The EU has proposed a 90% reduction in net greenhouse gas emissions by 2040, but the 2050 target remains for full carbon neutrality.
• This statement is incorrect.

Conclusion:

• Statement-I is correct, as the European Parliament approved the Net-Zero Industry Act recently.
• Statement-II is incorrect, as the EU's target for carbon neutrality is set for 2050, not 2040.

Correct Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries.

Statement-II: Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Techniques Used:

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Applied existing knowledge about Venezuela's economic situation and oil reserves.

2.        Logical Deductions: Analysed the relationship between oil reserves and economic recovery.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Identified inconsistencies between the statements and current data.

Analysis of Statements:

Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge and Look for Contradictions.
• Venezuela has faced severe economic challenges, including hyperinflation, infrastructure collapse, and food insecurity.
• While there have been signs of modest economic improvement, such as a projected growth rate of 4.2% in 2024, the recovery is not rapid, and significant challenges remain.
• The economic crisis has led to a mass exodus, with over 7.7 million people emigrating since the start of the crisis.
• This statement is incorrect.

Statement-II: Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• Venezuela possesses the largest proven oil reserves globally, estimated at approximately 303 billion barrels.
• This statement is correct.

Conclusion:

• Statement-I is incorrect, as Venezuela has not achieved a rapid economic recovery, nor has it prevented mass emigration.
• Statement-II is correct, as Venezuela holds the world's largest oil reserves.

Correct Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements: 

1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.

2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.

3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the objectives and components of the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP).

2.        Logical Deductions: Analysed the feasibility and funding structure of such a nationwide initiative.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified the alignment of statements with known facts about the scheme.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• DILRMP is a centrally sponsored scheme, where funding is shared between the Centre and States. The Centre provides 100% funding only for Union Territories without a legislature, while states receive partial funding.
• This statement is incorrect.

Statement 2: Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Digitization of cadastral maps is a key component of DILRMP to modernize land records. These maps are digitized to link them with textual records for better accuracy and accessibility.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 3: An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge and Logical Deductions.
• Transliteration of land records from local languages to other recognized languages is an initiative under DILRMP to enhance accessibility and standardization of records.
• This statement is correct.

Correct Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation of Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled that the funding is not fully covered by the Centre, except in specific cases, and that digitization and transliteration are core goals of the program.

2.        Logical Deductions: Recognized the importance of cadastral map digitization for land record modernization.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified that the program focuses on modernization and accessibility, making Statements 2 and 3 accurate while discrediting Statement 1.

With reference to the ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements

1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility

2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the objectives and provisions of the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA).

2.        Logical Deductions: Evaluated the scope and focus of antenatal care services provided under the scheme.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified the alignment of statements with the scheme's guidelines.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• PMSMA focuses on providing quality antenatal care specifically to pregnant women in their second and third trimesters. However, the scheme does not explicitly cover post-delivery health care for six months.
• This statement is incorrect.

Statement 2: Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge and Logical Deductions.
• PMSMA encourages private sector specialists, obstetricians, and other health care providers to volunteer their services at government health facilities on designated PMSMA days. This collaboration ensures broader access to quality antenatal care.
• This statement is correct.

Correct Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation of Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the specific focus of PMSMA on antenatal care for the second and third trimesters and the involvement of private healthcare professionals.

2.        Logical Deductions: Recognized that the scheme does not extend to six months of post-delivery care, focusing instead on antenatal health.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified that the statement about private sector involvement aligns with the scheme's implementation framework.

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements:

1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.

2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.

3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.

4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the provisions of the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana.

2.        Logical Deductions: Analysed the eligibility criteria, contribution details, and pension benefits under the scheme.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified the accuracy of the family pension provision.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• The entry age group for enrolment in PM-SYM is 18 to 40 years, not 21 to 40 years.
• This statement is incorrect.

Statement 2: Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.

• Technique Used: Logical Deductions.
• Beneficiaries under PM-SYM are required to contribute a monthly amount based on their age at the time of enrolment. For instance, an 18-year-old contributes ₹55 per month, while a 40-year-old contributes ₹200 per month.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 3: Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of ₹3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.

• Technique Used: Use of General Knowledge.
• PM-SYM provides a guaranteed minimum pension of ₹3,000 per month to each subscriber after attaining the age of 60 years.
• This statement is correct.

Statement 4: Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.

• Technique Used: Look for Contradictions.
• In the event of the subscriber's death, only the spouse is eligible to receive 50% of the pension as family pension. The provision does not extend to unmarried daughters.
• This statement is incorrect.

Correct Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation of Techniques Used

1.        Use of General Knowledge or Common Sense: Recalled the age eligibility, age-specific contribution, and pension benefits of the PM-SYM scheme.

2.        Logical Deductions: Analysed the implications of age-specific contributions and family pension rules.

3.        Look for Contradictions: Verified that family pension is restricted to the spouse, not unmarried daughters.